KEA AHO Exam 2026: Question Paper Pdf, Analysis and Key Answers

KEA AHO Exam 2026: General Knowledge Question Paper, Analysis and Key Answers

The competitive exam for 10 Assistant Director of Horticulture (ADH) and 75 Assistant Horticulture Officer (AHO, RPC) posts in the Karnataka Horticulture Department was held on 29 September 2026. This post covers the GK paper: what was asked, how difficult it was, and how to prepare for the next attempt.

Exam at a Glance

Detail	Information
Department	Horticulture Department, Government of Karnataka
Posts	10 Assistant Director of Horticulture + 75 Assistant Horticulture Officer (RPC)
Exam date	29 September 2026
Paper covered	General Knowledge (GK)
Total questions	100
Question type	Multiple choice, 4 options each

Topic-Wise Breakdown

Section	Approx. Questions	Difficulty
Karnataka: Language, Culture & Society	3	Easy to Moderate
Current Affairs & General Awareness	17	Moderate to Difficult
Polity & Constitution	18	Moderate
Economy & Development	12	Moderate
General Science	15	Easy to Moderate
Geography (India, World, Karnataka)	10	Moderate
Quantitative Aptitude & Reasoning	10	Moderate
History (Ancient, Medieval, Modern, Karnataka)	15	Moderate

Overall verdict: moderate to tough. The paper rewarded candidates who had followed current affairs through 2026 and who knew their Karnataka-specific facts.

Key Observations

1. Current affairs carried heavy weight

Around 17 questions were drawn from recent events. Topics included:

The proposal to give Tulu second official language status in Karnataka
Sahitya Akademi Awards 2025
Karnataka's Committee on Responsible AI
Rare Earth Corridors in the Union Budget 2026–27
Pax Silica and the Board of Peace for Gaza
Infosys Prize 2025 winners
Venezuela developments in 2026
India's disaster-relief mission in June 2026
The Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls
FIFA World Cup captains
Schemes such as AgriStack and PM Vishwakarma

Several of these were statement-based, so partial knowledge was not enough. Candidates had to know the details.

2. Polity was the largest static section

Eighteen questions covered the Election Commission, CBI, Lokpal, Constitutional Articles, President's Rule, the Estimates Committee and the Basic Structure Doctrine. Statement-and-explanation formats ("Statement I explains Statement II") were common. This format punishes guessing.

3. Karnataka-specific questions

Tribes and districts, administrative divisions, the Bhoo Guarantee Scheme, the Hyder Ali timeline, Tipu Sultan's coins, Karnataka historical works and the Unification of Karnataka all appeared. Candidates who studied the Karnataka syllabus had a clear edge.

4. Economy and schemes

Questions covered types of deficits, NABARD's role, MPI criteria, NPA measures, the PM MITRA "5F" vision, the NHB RESIDEX and the Equator Initiative Award.

5. Science with a practical flavour

The paper tested ethanol properties, protein denaturation, Doppler effect, inertia, colostrum, immunity, kingdoms of life, placentation and grafting. These suit the horticulture and agriculture background of the candidates.

6. Reasoning section

The reasoning questions were time-consuming. They included Venn diagrams, a number wheel, direction sense, a calendar problem and a number-series count. Practising these saves time on exam day.

Answer Key (Unofficial)

This key is based on subject knowledge and is not an official answer key. Some answers, especially on recent current affairs, are my best judgement. Verify against the official key when the department releases it.

Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans
1	2	21	1	41	1	61	1	81	2
2	3	22	2	42	1	62	3	82	1
3	4	23	3	43	3	63	1	83	1
4	1	24	2	44	4	64	4	84	3
5	4	25	2	45	1	65	3	85	2
6	4	26	2	46	1	66	2	86	3
7	1	27	2	47	1	67	2	87	1
8	4	28	3	48	2	68	1	88	4
9	2	29	2	49	1	69	3	89	4
10	1	30	3	50	2	70	1	90	3
11	3	31	3	51	4	71	4	91	1
12	2	32	1	52	2	72	4	92	1
13	4	33	2	53	1	73	4	93	2
14	3	34	3	54	4	74	1	94	2
15	4	35	3	55	4	75	2	95	3
16	1	36	1	56	2	76	1	96	1
17	3	37	1	57	2	77	3	97	2
18	4	38	1	58	1	78	3	98	4
19	2	39	2	59	3	79	2	99	2
20	1	40	3	60	3	80	2	100	4

Less certain: Q3, Q12, Q38, Q39, Q45, Q79, Q96, Q99 and Q100.

Download Links

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AHO / ADH GK Question Paper (29 Sep 2026)	[Insert link]
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Disclaimer: The answer key above is unofficial and for reference only. The department's official key is final

HISTORY — Full Questions, Correct Answers & Explanations

🏛️ ANCIENT INDIA

Q86. Nalanda University

Consider the following statements regarding Nalanda University:

(a) The Vice Chancellor Dharmapala was from Kanchi.
(b) Hiuen Tsang and I-tsing were students of the University.
(c) The students here worked on transcribing the manuscripts.
(d) This University was attacked by the Huna leader Mihirakula.

How many of the above statement(s) are correct?

Only one statement is correct
Only two statements are correct
Only three statements are correct
All the four statements are correct

✅ Answer: 4) All four statements are correct (disputed, see note)

Statement (a) is correct because Dharmapala, an early head of Nalanda, was from Kanchi. Statement (b) is correct because Xuanzang (Hiuen Tsang) and Yijing (I-tsing) both studied at Nalanda. Statement (c) is correct because manuscripts were studied, copied and preserved there. Statement (d) is accepted in many textbooks, which say Nalanda was damaged by Mihirakula's Huns before the later Turkish destruction. Options 1, 2 and 3 are wrong if all four statements are accepted.

⚠️ Note: The handwritten tick on your scan is on option 3, which suggests the paper's key treats one statement, probably (d), as incorrect. Historians disagree about the Mihirakula attack. Verify this one against the official key.

Q95. Alexander's Invasion of India

Which of the following are the effects of Alexander's invasion on India?

(a) The establishment of direct contact between India and Greece in various fields.
(b) Opened up four distinct routes on land and sea.
(c) In north-west India, Greek settlements multiplied.

(a) and (b)
(c) and (a)
(a), (b) and (c)
(b) and (c)

✅ Answer: 3) (a), (b) and (c)

Statement (a) is correct because the campaign created direct contact between India and the Greek world. Statement (b) is correct because the expedition opened routes connecting India with western Asia and the Mediterranean. Statement (c) is correct because Greek settlements and Indo-Greek interaction grew in the north-west. Option 1 is wrong because it omits (c). Option 2 is wrong because it omits (b). Option 4 is wrong because it omits (a).

⚔️ MEDIEVAL INDIA

Q92. Alauddin Khilji

Consider the following statements with reference to Alauddin Khilji:

(a) Alauddin Khilji was an autocrat.
(b) He introduced total prohibition of liquor.
(c) He forbidded gambling.
(d) He did not introduce strict measures to bring nobility under his control.

(a), (b) and (c)
(b), (c) and (d)
(a) and (d) only
(d) and (c) only

✅ Answer: 1) (a), (b) and (c)

Alauddin ruled as a highly centralised autocrat, banned liquor and intoxicants, and prohibited gambling. Statement (d) is wrong because he introduced strict measures against the nobility, including a spy network, a ban on social gatherings and intermarriage without permission, and confiscation of property. Options 2, 3 and 4 are wrong because each includes (d).

Q93. Hyder Ali — Chronology

With reference to Hyder Ali's career match List-I with List-II:

List-I: (a) Siege of Devanahalli, (b) Appointed as Faujdar of Dindigul, (c) Capture of Keladi, (d) Treaty of Madras

List-II: (i) 1769, (ii) 1749, (iii) 1755, (iv) 1763

a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv
a–ii, b–iii, c–iv, d–i
a–iii, b–i, c–iv, d–ii
a–i, b–iii, c–iv, d–ii

✅ Answer: 2) a–ii, b–iii, c–iv, d–i

The correct chronology is Devanahalli 1749, Dindigul 1755, Keladi 1763 and the Treaty of Madras 1769, which ended the First Anglo-Mysore War. Option 1 is wrong because it gives wrong years for all four events. Option 3 is wrong because it assigns 1755 to Devanahalli and 1769 to Dindigul. Option 4 is wrong because it assigns 1769 to Devanahalli and 1749 to the Treaty of Madras.

⚠️ Note: The earlier text marked option 3 as correct. That was wrong. Option 3 is the one circled on your scan, but it does not match the dates. Option 2 is the right answer.

Q94. Kathak

Identify the incorrect statement regarding the dance form, Kathak.

(a) The Kathaks were originally a caste of storytellers.
(b) It became a distinct mode of dance in the Twelfth century.
(c) It was developed into four gharanas.
(d) Under the reign of Wajid Ali Shah, the Nawab of Awadh grew into a major art form.

(a) and (b) are incorrect
(b) and (c) are incorrect
(c) and (d) are incorrect
(a) and (d) are incorrect

✅ Answer: 2) (b) and (c) are incorrect (best-fit answer)

Statement (a) is correct because Kathaks were hereditary storytellers. Statement (d) is correct because Kathak flourished under Wajid Ali Shah's patronage at Lucknow. Statement (b) is treated as incorrect because Kathak is usually said to have taken a distinct form later, under Mughal-era court patronage. Statement (c) is treated as incorrect because textbooks usually name three main gharanas (Jaipur, Lucknow and Banaras), though Raigarh is sometimes added as a fourth. Option 1 is wrong because it calls (a) incorrect. Option 3 is wrong because it calls (d) incorrect. Option 4 is wrong because it calls both (a) and (d) incorrect.

⚠️ Note: Statement (c) is textbook-dependent. Option 2 is still the only option consistent with (a) and (d) being correct.

Q97. Mulk-i-Qadim

'Mulk-i-Kadim' belongs to which of the following?

Sovereign territories of Aurangzeb
Shivaji's Swarajya
Deccan territories of Aurangzeb
Chouth paid by subordinate states to Shivaji

✅ Answer: 2) Shivaji's Swarajya

Mulk-i-Qadim means the "old territory" and refers to Shivaji's own core kingdom, the Swarajya. Options 1 and 3 are wrong because they refer to Mughal territory. Option 4 is wrong because chauth was a tribute claimed from areas outside the Swarajya.

🇮🇳 MODERN INDIA

Q88. Doctrine of Lapse

Consider the following statements with reference to the 'Doctrine of Lapse'.

Statement I: The 'Doctrine of Lapse' was a policy that allowed the company to take over Indian Kingdoms if the ruler died without a male heir.
Statement II: This helped the British in expanding their control in India.

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Both Statements I and II are correct but Statement I does not explain Statement II.
Both Statements I and II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II.

✅ Answer: 4) Both are correct and Statement I explains Statement II

Under the Doctrine of Lapse, the Company refused to recognise an adopted heir where a ruler died without a natural male heir, and annexed the state. States such as Satara, Jhansi and Nagpur were annexed this way, which expanded British territory. Statement I therefore directly explains Statement II. Options 1 and 2 are wrong because both statements are correct. Option 3 is wrong because the annexation mechanism is the cause of the expansion.

Q91. Crops Introduced in the 17th Century

Identify the two crops that were introduced in the 17th Century.

Potato and red chillies
Tobacco and maize
Indigo and chay (red dye)
Cotton and sugarcane

✅ Answer: 1) Potato and red chillies

Potato and chilli are New World crops brought to India by the Portuguese and other Europeans, and both are listed among 17th-century introductions in standard textbooks. Option 3 is wrong because indigo and chay root dye were already old Indian products. Option 4 is wrong because cotton and sugarcane have ancient Indian roots.

⚠️ Note: The earlier text said tobacco and maize came earlier. That is not safe. Tobacco reached India around 1605, so option 2 is the closest competitor, but option 1 is the standard textbook answer and the one ticked on your scan.

Q96. Portuguese Governor Generals in India

Identify the Portuguese Governor Generals in India.

(a) Almeida
(b) Nuno da Cunha
(c) Vasco da Gama
(d) Dupleix

(a) and (b) are correct
(a) and (c) are correct
(b) and (d) are correct
(c) and (d) are correct

✅ Answer: 1) (a) and (b) are correct (best-fit answer)

Francisco de Almeida was the first Portuguese Viceroy (1505–09), and Nuno da Cunha was Governor from 1529 to 1538. Dupleix was a French governor, so (d) is wrong, which eliminates options 3 and 4. Vasco da Gama became Viceroy in 1524, so option 2 is also defensible, because the question mixes the titles "governor" and "viceroy". Option 1 is chosen as the best fit.

⚠️ Note: The earlier text claimed Vasco da Gama was "not counted in the paper's classification". That claim had no basis. The ambiguity is real, so check the official key.

Q98. Brahmo Samaj

Arrange the following statements related to Brahma Samaj in the chronological order.

(a) Foundation of Sadharana Brahma Samaj.
(b) Establishment of Tattvabodhini Sabha.
(c) Split of Brahma Samaj into Bharathiya Brahma Samaj and Adi Brahma Samaj.
(d) Foundation of Sanghath Sabha.

(a), (b), (c), (d)
(b), (c), (a), (d)
(d), (c), (b), (a)
(b), (d), (c), (a)

✅ Answer: 4) (b), (d), (c), (a)

Tattvabodhini Sabha was founded in 1839,
Sangat Sabha in 1860,
the split into Adi and Bharatiya Brahmo Samaj in 1866, and
Sadharan Brahmo Samaj in 1878.
Options 1, 2 and 3 are wrong because each places at least one event out of order.

Q99. Electric Telegraph

Statement I: Dalhousie may be regarded as the 'Father of Electric Telegraph in India.'
Statement II: O. Shaughnessy was appointed as the Superintendent of the Electric Telegraph Department in 1852.

Both Statements I and II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II
Both Statements I and II are correct but Statement I does not explain Statement II
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

✅ Answer: 2) Both are correct but Statement I does not explain Statement II

Dalhousie pushed the introduction and expansion of the telegraph in India. William O'Shaughnessy laid the first experimental line in 1851 and was appointed Superintendent of the Telegraph Department in 1852. Both statements are true, but Dalhousie being called the "Father" does not logically explain why O'Shaughnessy held the post, so option 1 is wrong. Options 3 and 4 are wrong because both statements are true.

🏰 KARNATAKA HISTORY

Q87. Gandhi's Visits to Mysore and Bangalore

Statement I: At the request of D.V. Gundappa, Gandhiji came to Mysore for the first time to unveil the portrait of Lala Lajpat Rai.
Statement II: Gandhiji visited Bangalore for the last time during the Quit India Movement.

Only Statement I is correct
Only Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

✅ Answer: 1) Only Statement I is correct (moderate confidence)

Statement II is wrong. Gandhi was imprisoned during the Quit India Movement of 1942, and his last visit to Bangalore was in 1936. His last visit to Karnataka was in 1937, at Hudali. That makes options 2 and 3 wrong. Statement I fits the known link between D.V. Gundappa's Gokhale Institute of Public Affairs and Gandhi's visit, so options 1 and 4 remain, and option 1 is the better choice.

⚠️ Note: The earlier text said Statement I was wrong because Gandhi's first visit in 1915 was a Gokhale memorial event. That does not disprove Statement I, so I could not confirm it either way. Treat this as unverified.

Q89. Karnataka Historians and Works

Correctly match the following List-I with List-II.

List-I: (a) Alur Venkataraya, (b) B.L. Rice, (c) Robert Sewell, (d) Dr. D.R. Bhandarkar

List-II: (i) The Early History of Deccan, (ii) A Forgotten Empire, (iii) Epigraphia Carnatica, (iv) Karnataka Gatha Vaibhava

a–iii, b–iv, c–i, d–ii
a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii
a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv
a–iv, b–iii, c–ii, d–i

✅ Answer: 4) a–iv, b–iii, c–ii, d–i

Alur Venkata Rao wrote Karnataka Gatha Vaibhava, a key text of the unification movement. B.L. Rice compiled Epigraphia Carnatica. Robert Sewell wrote A Forgotten Empire on Vijayanagara. The Early History of the Deccan is the work matched to Bhandarkar here. Options 1, 2 and 3 are wrong because each mismatches at least two authors and works.

Q90. Unification of Karnataka

Committee that approved the Unification of Karnataka is ________.

J.V.P. Committee
S.K. Dhar Committee
Fazal Ali Committee
Wanchoo Committee

✅ Answer: 3) Fazal Ali Committee

The States Reorganisation Commission, set up in 1953 under Justice Fazal Ali, recommended reorganising states on linguistic lines, including the unification of Kannada-speaking areas. Option 1 is wrong because the JVP Committee of 1948 was cautious about linguistic states. Option 2 is wrong because the Dhar Commission of 1948 also did not favour them. Option 4 is wrong because the Wanchoo Committee has no link with state reorganisation.

Q93. Hyder Ali's Career

This is the same question as the Medieval India Q93 above. The correct answer is Option 2 (a–ii, b–iii, c–iv, d–i): Devanahalli 1749, Dindigul 1755, Keladi 1763, Treaty of Madras 1769.

Q100. Tipu Sultan's Gold Coins

Which of the following are the gold coins introduced by Tippu Sultan?

(a) Hyderi
(b) Imami
(c) Ahmadi
(d) Sadiqi
(e) Faruqi

(a), (b) and (c)
(a), (c) and (d)
(b), (c) and (d)
(c), (d) and (e)

✅ Answer: 4) (c), (d) and (e) (low confidence)

Tipu named his coins after Islamic figures, and Ahmadi, Sadiqi and Faruqi are commonly listed among his gold denominations, so I picked option 4. Options 1, 2 and 3 are wrong only if Hyderi and Imami are excluded. Sources disagree on which names were gold and which were silver or copper.

⚠️ Note: The earlier text said Imami was silver. I could not confirm that. The handwritten ticks on your scan favour (a) and (b), so verify this against the official key.

POLITY & GOVERNANCE — COMPLETE TOPIC-WISE SET

Below are the Polity and Governance questions from the paper (Q22–Q35), with the full question, all options, the correct answer, and an explanation of the right and wrong options.

1. 📊 PARLIAMENTARY COMMITTEES

Q22. Estimates Committee

Who recommended the establishment of the Estimates Committee?

K. Santhanam
Dr. John Mathai
V. K. Krishna Menon
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

✅ Answer: 2) Dr. John Mathai

The Estimates Committee was constituted in 1950 on the recommendation of John Mathai, who was then India's Finance Minister. Option 1 (K. Santhanam) is wrong because he did not recommend this committee. Option 3 (V. K. Krishna Menon) is wrong because he is associated with other parliamentary and diplomatic matters, not this committee. Option 4 (Dr. B. R. Ambedkar) is wrong because he played a central role in framing the Constitution but did not recommend this committee.

📌 Important facts: The committee has 30 members, all from the Lok Sabha, with no Rajya Sabha representation. The term is one year. It examines the budget estimates and suggests economies in public expenditure.

2. 🏛️ PUBLIC POLICY

Q23. Policymaking Process

Arrange the following steps in correct order of the policymaking process.

(a) Policy formulation
(b) Policy adoption
(c) Agenda setting
(d) Policy implementation

(a), (d), (c), (b)
(b), (c), (a), (d)
(c), (a), (b), (d)
(d), (b), (a), (c)

✅ Answer: 3) (c), (a), (b), (d)

The normal policy cycle runs: Agenda Setting → Policy Formulation → Policy Adoption → Policy Implementation. Agenda setting identifies the issue or problem. Formulation develops possible solutions. Adoption is when the government formally accepts a policy. Implementation puts the adopted policy into practice. Options 1, 2 and 4 are wrong because each places implementation or adoption before agenda setting and formulation, which breaks this logical sequence.

📌 Easy trick: A → F → A → I (Agenda, Formulation, Adoption, Implementation).

3. 🇮🇳 FEDERAL SYSTEM

Q24. Federal System of India

Match the following and choose the correct answer regarding the Federal System of India:

List-I: (a) Union List, (b) State List, (c) Concurrent List, (d) Residuary Powers

List-II: (i) Animal husbandry, (ii) Birth and death registration, (iii) Sea theft, (iv) Cyber crime

a–i, b–iv, c–ii, d–iii
a–iii, b–i, c–ii, d–iv
a–iv, b–i, c–ii, d–iii
a–iii, b–ii, c–i, d–iv

✅ Answer: 2) a–iii, b–i, c–ii, d–iv

Sea theft (piracy on the high seas) falls in the Union List, so (a) matches (iii). Animal husbandry is primarily a State subject, so (b) matches (i). Registration of births and deaths is in the Concurrent List, so (c) matches (ii). Cyber crime is a new subject not assigned to any list, so it falls under Parliament's residuary legislative power and (d) matches (iv). Option 1 wrongly places cyber crime in the State List. Option 3 wrongly places cyber crime in the Union List. Option 4 wrongly places birth and death registration in the State List and animal husbandry in the Concurrent List.

4. 🚨 PRESIDENT'S RULE

Q25. 44th Constitutional Amendment

The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 introduced strict limits on extending President's Rule beyond _____, requiring a national emergency to be in force and a certificate from the Election Commission.

Six months
One year
Two years
Three years

✅ Answer: 2) One year

Under Article 356, President's Rule is approved for six months at a time. The 44th Amendment made any continuation beyond one year conditional. A National Emergency must be in operation, and the Election Commission must certify that elections cannot be held in the State. Option 1 is wrong because six months is the period of each parliamentary approval, not the point after which the extra conditions apply. Option 3 is wrong because two years is not a threshold in the Constitution. Option 4 is wrong because three years is the overall maximum duration, not the limit the amendment placed on extension.

📌 Remember: President's Rule is under Article 356. Beyond one year it needs a National Emergency plus an Election Commission certificate. The maximum total is three years.

5. 🏛️ PARLIAMENTARY FORM OF GOVERNMENT

Q26. Parliamentary Government

Identify the incorrect statement regarding the Parliamentary Form of Government in India.

(a) In a Parliamentary System, the executive is typically divided into nominal and real executive.
(b) The Parliamentary form of government evolved in Europe before being adopted in India.
(c) The main feature of parliamentary form of government is distribution of power between Centre and States.
(d) In a parliamentary form of government, the head of the executive is Prime Minister.

(a) and (b) are incorrect
(c) and (d) are incorrect
(a) and (c) are incorrect
(b) and (c) are incorrect

✅ Answer: 2) (c) and (d) are incorrect

Statement (a) is correct because India has a nominal executive (the President) and a real executive (the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers). Statement (b) is correct because the parliamentary system developed in Britain and Europe and was adopted in India with modifications. Statement (c) is incorrect because the distribution of powers between the Centre and States is a feature of federalism, not of the parliamentary system. Statement (d) is incorrect because the President is the formal head of the Union executive, while the Prime Minister is the head of the government. Options 1, 3 and 4 are wrong because each wrongly labels (a) or (b) as incorrect.

6. 📜 CONSTITUTIONAL ARTICLES

Q27. Correctly Matched Pairs

Identify the correctly matched pairs:

(a) Finance Commission — Article 280
(b) Election Commission — Article 324
(c) Union Public Service Commission — Article 315
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General — Article 388

(a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct
(a), (b) and (c) are correct
(b), (c) and (d) are correct
(b) and (d) are correct

✅ Answer: 2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

The Finance Commission is under Article 280, the Election Commission under Article 324, and the UPSC under Article 315. The CAG is provided for under Article 148, not Article 388, so pair (d) is wrong. Options 1, 3 and 4 are wrong because each treats pair (d) as correct.

📌 Must remember: Finance Commission 280, Election Commission 324, UPSC 315, CAG 148.

7. 🗳️ ELECTION COMMISSION

Q28. Election Commission vs State Election Commission

Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission:

Statement I: Election Commission of India supervises the elections to the State Legislature.
Statement II: Election Commission of India conducts Zilla Panchayat elections.

Which of the following option is correct with respect to the statements given above?

Both Statements I and II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II
Both Statements I and II are correct but Statement I does not explain Statement II
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

✅ Answer: 3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Statement I is correct. Article 324 gives the Election Commission of India superintendence, direction and control over elections to Parliament, the State Legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President. Statement II is incorrect. Elections to Zilla Panchayats and other local bodies are conducted by the State Election Commission, not the ECI. Options 1 and 2 are wrong because they treat Statement II as correct. Option 4 is wrong because it reverses the truth of both statements.

8. 🧑‍⚖️ MINORITIES COMMISSION

Q29. Minorities Commissions

Consider the following statements with reference to Minorities Commissions.

Statement I: Sardar Ali Khan was the first Chairman of the Minorities Commission.
Statement II: Special Officers for linguistic minorities are appointed by the President of India.

Identify the correct answer from the options given below:

Both Statements I and II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II
Both Statements I and II are correct but Statement I does not explain Statement II
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

✅ Answer: 2) Both Statements I and II are correct but Statement I does not explain Statement II

Statement I is correct. Justice Mohd. Sardar Ali Khan was the first Chairman of the statutory National Commission for Minorities, constituted in 1993. Statement II is correct. Under Article 350B, the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is appointed by the President. The two statements deal with separate institutions, so Statement I does not explain Statement II. Option 1 is wrong because it claims an explanatory link. Options 3 and 4 are wrong because each treats one true statement as false.

9. 🔎 CENTRAL BUREAU OF INVESTIGATION

Q30. CBI

Consider the following statements with reference to Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI):

Statement I: CBI investigates cases of corruption of Central Government employees.
Statement II: CBI does not investigate crimes having international ramification.

Which of the following is correct with respect to the statements given above?

Both Statements I and II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II
Both Statements I and II are correct but Statement I does not explain Statement II
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

✅ Answer: 3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Statement I is correct because the CBI investigates corruption and other specified offences involving Central Government employees and agencies. Statement II is incorrect because the CBI can investigate cases with international ramifications, and it is also the national contact point for Interpol, subject to the applicable legal framework. Options 1 and 2 are wrong because they accept Statement II. Option 4 is wrong because it rejects Statement I.

10. 🏛️ LOKPAL

Q31. Administrative Jurisdiction of Lokpal

Lokpal falls under the administrative jurisdiction of ________.

Ministry of Home Affairs
Ministry of Law and Parliamentary Affairs
Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
Ministry of Law and Justice

✅ Answer: 3) Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

The Lokpal is a statutory anti-corruption body established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013. Its administrative linkage is with the Department of Personnel and Training under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions. Options 1, 2 and 4 are wrong because none of those ministries has administrative control over the Lokpal.

11. 🏛️ CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY

Q32. Largest Constituent Assembly Committee

Which of the following committees of the Constituent Assembly had the largest number of members?

Committee on Fundamental Rights and Minorities
Drafting Committee
Provincial Constitution Committee
Committee on Union Constitution

✅ Answer: 1) Committee on Fundamental Rights and Minorities

The Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas was the largest committee of the Constituent Assembly. Standard references give its strength as around 50 to 72 members, depending on the stage. The Provincial Constitution Committee had about 25 members, the Union Constitution Committee about 15, and the Drafting Committee only 7. Options 2, 3 and 4 are wrong because each had far fewer members.

12. ⚖️ BASIC STRUCTURE DOCTRINE

Q33. Basic Structure

Which of the following is not a part of the Basic Structure Doctrine of Indian Constitution?

Judicial review
Emergency provisions
Freedom and dignity of an individual
Effective access to justice

✅ Answer expected by the paper: 2) Emergency provisions

Judicial review, freedom and dignity of the individual, and effective access to justice are all recognised by the Supreme Court as part of the basic structure, so options 1, 3 and 4 are wrong. Emergency provisions are not listed as an independent basic-structure feature, so option 2 is the intended answer.

⚠️ Exam note: The claim that emergency provisions can never be part of the basic structure is too absolute, since the Supreme Court has discussed emergency provisions in basic-structure terms. Even so, option 2 is clearly the best answer among the choices given.

13. 🏘️ RURAL DEVELOPMENT — DISHA

Q34. DISHA

'DISHA' under Ministry of Rural Development Government of India means

District Distribution Corporation and Managing Committee
District Development Corporation and Monitoring Committee
District Development Coordination and Monitoring Committee
District Distribution Coordination and Monitoring Committee

✅ Answer: 3) District Development Coordination and Monitoring Committee

DISHA stands for District Development Coordination and Monitoring Committee. It coordinates and monitors the implementation of Central Government schemes at the district level. Option 1 is wrong because both "Distribution" and "Corporation" are incorrect. Option 2 is wrong because "Corporation" is incorrect. Option 4 is wrong because "Distribution" is incorrect.

14. ⚖️ DISTRICT JUDGE — ARTICLE 233

Q35. Qualifications for District Judge

A person to be appointed as a judge of district court should have the following qualifications.

(a) He/She should not be in State or Central Government service.
(b) He/She should have been an advocate for at least seven years.
(c) He/She should be recommended by the High Court for appointment.
(d) He/She should have held a judicial office in a state for five years.

(a) and (b)
(b) and (c)
(a), (b) and (c)
(a), (b), (c) and (d)

✅ Answer: 3) (a), (b) and (c)

Article 233 governs the appointment of District Judges. For a direct recruit from outside the judicial service, the person must not already be in Union or State service, so (a) is correct. The person must have been an advocate or pleader for at least seven years, so (b) is correct. The person must be recommended by the High Court, so (c) is correct. Statement (d) is incorrect because Article 233 has no five-year judicial office requirement. Options 1 and 2 are wrong because each leaves out a correct statement. Option 4 is wrong because it includes (d).

📰 CURRENT AFFAIRS & GENERAL AWARENESS

Total questions: 21. I removed the "H1" and "H2" labels, checked each answer, and compared the options with your scan. Several options in your text differed from the scan (Q9, Q14, Q17, Q19, Q20), so I restored the scan's wording. A summary of the changes is at the end.

1. 🗣️ Karnataka Languages & Current Affairs

Q1. Tulu Language as Second Official Language

Consider the following statements regarding the proposal to grant 'Tulu' language, the status of second official language in Karnataka:

(a) A six-member state-level committee chaired by K.M. Gayathri has backed the move.
(b) The committee studied the legal framework of Andhra Pradesh, which recognized Urdu as its second official language.
(c) Tulu language is predominantly spoken in Dakshina Kannada, Udupi and parts of Kasaragodu.

(a) and (b) only
(a) and (c) only
(b) and (c) only
(a), (b) and (c)

✅ Answer: 2) (a) and (c) only (moderate confidence)

Statement (c) is correct because Tulu is mainly spoken in Dakshina Kannada, Udupi and the Kasaragod region.
Statement (a) is accepted because the committee backing the move is the premise of the question.
Statement (b) is treated as wrong, and your scan crosses it out. Options 1 and 4 are wrong because they include (b).
Option 3 is wrong because it includes (b) and leaves out (a).

2. 📚 Sahitya Akademi Awards

Q2. Sahitya Akademi Awards 2025

Consider the following pairs related to Sahitya Akademi Awards, 2025:

(a) Navtej Sarna — Jeete Jee Allahabad
(b) Amaresh Nugadoni — Dada Serisu Tande
(c) Mamta Kalia — Crimson Spring

Which of the pair/s given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) only
(a) and (b) only
(b) only
(b) and (c) only

✅ Answer: 3) (b) only

Pair (b) is correct because Amaresh Nugadoni won for the Kannada work Dada Seerisu Tande. Pair (a) is wrong because Navtej Sarna won for Crimson Spring. Pair (c) is wrong because Mamta Kalia won for Jeete Jee Allahabad. Options 1, 2 and 4 are wrong because each includes (a) or (c).

📌 Easy trick: Navtej → Crimson Spring; Mamta → Jeete Jee Allahabad; Amaresh → Dada Seerisu Tande.

3. 🏞️ Karnataka Tribes

Q3. Bhalekadi Tribal Village

Bhalekadi, a tribal village located inside the Kudremukh National Park is home to which of the following tribal communities?

Soliga
Gowdlu
Jenukuruba
Hakki Pikki

✅ Answer: 4) Hakki Pikki (low confidence)

Hakki Pikki is the best fit among the options and is the one ticked on your scan. The Soliga are linked to the BR Hills and Biligiri Rangana Betta region, and the Jenu Kuruba to the Mysuru and Kodagu forests. So options 1 and 3 are wrong, and Gowdlu (option 2) is not a recognised forest tribe in this area.

⚠️ Note: Kudremukh is more commonly linked with the Malekudiya community, which is not an option. Verify this one.

4. 🤖 Artificial Intelligence

Q4. Committee on Responsible Artificial Intelligence

Consider the following statements regarding "Committee on Responsible Artificial Intelligence":

(a) The Committee is chaired by Kris Gopalakrishnan.
(b) Its primary mandate is to develop a responsible AI policy and implementation across government system.
(c) The Committee is chaired by N. R. Narayana Murthy while Kris Gopalakrishnan serves as its chief technical advisor.

(a) and (b) only
(a) only
(b) and (c) only
(c) only

✅ Answer: 1) (a) and (b) only

Statements (a) and (b) are correct. Statement (c) contradicts (a), because the two statements name different chairpersons, so both cannot be true. Options 3 and 4 are wrong because they include (c). Option 2 is wrong because it leaves out (b), which is correct.

5. 💻 Artificial Intelligence & Technology

Q5. Open-Source AI Plugins

Which of the following AI technology companies released 11 open-source plugins for its workplace suite in early 2026?

OpenAI
Google
Microsoft
Anthropic

✅ Answer: 4) Anthropic

Anthropic released 11 open-source plugins for Claude Cowork, its AI workplace tool, in early 2026. Options 1, 2 and 3 are wrong because none of those companies made this release.

📌 Remember: Anthropic → Claude Cowork → 11 open-source plugins.

6. ⛏️ Rare Earth Minerals

Q6. Rare Earth Corridors

The Union Budget 2026-27 proposed supporting which of the following states in establishing 'Rare Earth Corridors'?

(a) Odisha
(b) Kerala
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu

(a) and (b) only
(a), (c) and (d) only
(b), (c) and (d) only
(a), (b), (c) and (d)

✅ Answer: 4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

The Budget named all four states, Odisha, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, for dedicated Rare Earth Corridors.

7. 🌐 International Relations

Q7. Pax Silica Alliance

Consider the following statements with reference to 'Pax Silica' alliance:

(a) It aims to build a secure, common supply chain for electronics and critical minerals.
(b) Its inaugural summit was held in Washington DC in December 2025.
(c) The alliance members include India, the USA, Japan, South Korea and the European Union.

(a) and (b) only
(a) and (c) only
(b) and (c) only
(a), (b) and (c)

✅ Answer: 1) (a) and (b) only

Statement (a) is correct because Pax Silica focuses on secure supply chains for AI, semiconductors and critical minerals. Statement (b) is correct because the inaugural summit was held in Washington, D.C., in December 2025. Statement (c) is wrong because the European Union is not a member, and India was not among the original signatories. Options 2, 3 and 4 are wrong because they include (c).

📌 Remember: Pax Silica → AI + semiconductors + critical minerals + secure supply chains.

8. 🕊️ Gaza & International Affairs

Q8. Board of Peace for Gaza

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the newly established intergovernmental 'Board of Peace' for Gaza reconstruction?

(a) Membership of the board is for a period of three years.
(b) Countries that donate $1 billion within the first year can become permanent members.
(c) European nations like France, Sweden, Norway and Slovenia have declined the invitation to join.

(a) and (b) only
(b) and (c) only
(a) and (c) only
(a), (b) and (c)

✅ Answer: 4) (a), (b) and (c)

Membership runs for three years, countries contributing $1 billion can secure permanent membership, and several European nations declined the invitation. Options 1, 2 and 3 are wrong because each leaves out a correct statement.

9. 🏆 Awards & Science

Q9. Infosys Prize 2025

Match the categories of the Infosys Prize-2025 with their respective winners:

List-I	List-II
(a) Engineering and Computer Science	(i) Anjana Badrinarayanan
(b) Life Sciences	(ii) Sabyasachi Mukherjee
(c) Mathematical Sciences	(iii) Karthish Manthiram
(d) Physical Sciences	(iv) Sushant Sachdeva

a–iv, b–ii, c–i, d–iii
a–iv, b–i, c–ii, d–iii
a–iii, b–i, c–ii, d–iv
a–i, b–iv, c–iii, d–ii

✅ Answer: 2) a–iv, b–i, c–ii, d–iii

Sushant Sachdeva won Engineering and Computer Science, Anjana Badrinarayanan won Life Sciences, Sabyasachi Mukherjee won Mathematical Sciences, and Karthish Manthiram won Physical Sciences. .

10. 🌦️ Meteorology

Q10. GRIB

With reference to meteorology, what does 'GRIB' stand for?

GRIdded Binary
GRIdded Bits
GRIdded Bytes
GRIdded Basics

✅ Answer: 1) GRIdded Binary

GRIB is a data format used to store and transmit gridded weather data, and it stands for GRIdded Binary. Options 2, 3 and 4 are wrong because they are invented expansions.

11. 🌎 Venezuela Geopolitics

Q11. Geopolitical Events in Venezuela

Consider the following statements regarding the geopolitical events in Venezuela:

(a) On January, 2026, U.S. military forces captured Venezuelan President Nicolas Maduro.
(b) Following Maduro capture, Colombia's President Gustavo Petro took over as the interim acting President of Venezuela.
(c) The U.S. government charged him with the allegation of narco-terrorism conspiracy and drug trafficking.

(a) and (b) only
(b) and (c) only
(a) and (c) only
(a), (b) and (c)

✅ Answer: 3) (a) and (c) only

Statements (a) and (c) are correct because Maduro was captured in January 2026 and charged by the U.S. with narco-terrorism conspiracy and drug trafficking. Statement (b) is wrong because the President of Colombia cannot become the head of Venezuela's government. Options 1, 2 and 4 are wrong because they include (b).

12. 🛡️ Defence Appointments

Q12. Military and Security Officers

Consider the following pairs related to military and security officers (as of June 2026):

(a) N.S. Raja Subramani — Chief of the Defence Staff
(b) Krishna Swaminathan — Chief of the Naval Staff
(c) Dhiraj Seth — Director of the Intelligence Bureau
(d) Mahesh Dixit — Chief of the Army Staff

How many of the above pairs are INCORRECT?

One only
Two only
Three only
All the four

✅ Answer: 2) Two only (low confidence)

Based on the 2026 appointments in your notes, Raja Subramani as CDS and Swaminathan as Navy Chief are correct. Dhiraj Seth is the Army Chief, not the IB Director, so pair (c) is wrong. Mahesh Dixit is the IB Director, not the Army Chief, so pair (d) is wrong. Two pairs are incorrect, so options 1, 3 and 4 are wrong.

⚠️ Note: I could not verify these 2026 appointments myself. Check the official key.

13. 🏅 Asian Games

Q13. Asian Games

Statement I: The inaugural Asian Games were organized in New Delhi in 1951.
Statement II: Thailand has hosted the most editions of the Asian Games.

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

✅ Answer: 4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

The first Asian Games were held in New Delhi in 1951. Thailand (Bangkok) has hosted the Games four times, the most of any country. Options 1, 2 and 3 are wrong because each treats at least one true statement as false.

14. 📅 Important Days

Q14. Important Days

List-I	List-II
(a) World Forestry Day	(i) June 5
(b) World Environment Day	(ii) July 11
(c) World Conservation Day	(iii) March 21
(d) World Population Day	(iv) October 24

a–ii, b–i, c–iii, d–iv
a–iv, b–iii, c–ii, d–i
a–iii, b–i, c–iv, d–ii
a–i, b–ii, c–iv, d–iii

✅ Answer: 3) a–iii, b–i, c–iv, d–ii

World Forestry Day is March 21 (iii), World Environment Day is June 5 (i), World Conservation Day is October 24 (iv), and World Population Day is July 11 (ii). Option 1 is wrong because it gives Forestry Day as July 11. Option 2 is wrong because it gives Forestry Day as October 24. Option 4 is wrong because it gives Forestry Day as June 5.

15. 🚑 Disaster Relief & HADR

Q15. Operation Amistad

Name India's Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) mission launched in June 2026 to assist Venezuela after two powerful earthquakes measuring 7.2 and 7.5 on the Richter scale.

Operation Dost
Operation Brahma
Operation Devi Shakti
Operation Amistad

✅ Answer: 4) Operation Amistad

Operation Amistad was India's relief mission for Venezuela, and "Amistad" means friendship in Spanish. Option 1 is wrong because Operation Dost was the 2023 Turkey and Syria earthquake relief. Option 2 is wrong because Operation Brahma was the March 2025 Myanmar earthquake relief. Option 3 is wrong because Operation Devi Shakti was the 2021 Afghanistan evacuation.

16. 🗳️ Electoral Affairs

Q16. Special Intensive Revision

Which of the following document/documents are accepted for voter identification and citizenship during the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of the electoral roll?

(a) Birth Certificate
(b) Passport
(c) Forest Rights Certificate
(d) Aadhaar Card
(e) Caste Certificate

(a), (b), (c), (d) and (e)
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
(a), (c), (d) and (e)
(a), (b), (c) and (e)

✅ Answer: 1) (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) (moderate confidence)

Birth certificate, passport, forest rights certificate and caste certificate are all on the Election Commission's list of accepted SIR documents. Aadhaar is also accepted, following the Supreme Court's direction, though mainly as proof of identity rather than citizenship. The ticks on your scan favour option 1. Options 2, 3 and 4 are wrong because each leaves out a document that is accepted.

⚠️ Note: The original SIR list of 11 documents did not include Aadhaar, so option 4 is the main competitor. Verify against the official key.

17. 💻 Semiconductors

Q17. Sahasra Semiconductors

India's first SME-led semiconductor facility by 'Sahasra Semiconductors Private Limited' Company was inaugurated at ______ of Rajasthan.

Bharatpur
Bundi
Bhiwadi
Bikaner

✅ Answer: 3) Bhiwadi

Sahasra's ATMP/OSAT facility is at Bhiwadi in Alwar district, Rajasthan, which gave the state its first semiconductor plant. Options 1, 2 and 4 are wrong because the facility is not located there.

⚠️ Note: Your text listed "Bhilwara" as an option and made Bhiwadi option 4. The scan lists Bhiwadi as option 3.

18. 🌾 AgriStack

Q18. Digital Public Infrastructure for Agriculture

The three foundational registries of AgriStack are:

(a) PGS-India Registry
(b) e-NAM Directory
(c) Crop Sown Registry
(d) Geo-referenced Village Maps
(e) Farmer Registry

(a), (b) and (c)
(b), (c) and (d)
(a), (c) and (e)
(c), (d) and (e)

✅ Answer: 4) (c), (d) and (e)

The three foundational registries are the Farmer Registry, the Geo-referenced Village Maps and the Crop Sown Registry. PGS-India and e-NAM are separate agriculture initiatives and are not AgriStack registries. Options 1, 2 and 3 are wrong because each includes (a) or (b).

📌 Memory trick: F-G-C → Farmer, Geo-map, Crop.

19. 🧵 PM Vishwakarma

Q19. PM Vishwakarma Scheme

Among the following, identify the 3 pillars of the PM Vishwakarma Scheme:

(a) Samman
(b) Swavalambhan
(c) Samriddhi
(d) Swasahay
(e) Samarthya

(a), (b) and (c)
(a), (c) and (e)
(c), (d) and (e)
(b), (c) and (d)

✅ Answer: 2) (a), (c) and (e)

The three pillars are Samman (recognition), Samarthya (skill development) and Samriddhi (prosperity). Swavalambhan and Swasahay are not pillars of the scheme. Options 1, 3 and 4 are wrong because each includes (b) or (d).

⚠️ Note: Your text listed the options differently, with the right answer as option 1. In the scan it is option 2.

20. ⚽ FIFA World Cup

Q20. Football Players

List-I Country	List-II FIFA World Cup Team Captains
(a) England	(i) Marquinhos
(b) Portugal	(ii) Rodri
(c) Brazil	(iii) Harry Kane
(d) Spain	(iv) Cristiano Ronaldo

a–iii, b–iv, c–i, d–ii
a–iii, b–iv, c–v, d–ii
a–i, b–iv, c–v, d–ii
a–v, b–iv, c–ii, d–iii

✅ Answer: 1) a–iii, b–iv, c–i, d–ii

England's captain is Harry Kane, Portugal's is Cristiano Ronaldo, Brazil's is Marquinhos and Spain's is Rodri. Option 2 is wrong because it gives Messi, who captains Argentina, as Brazil's captain. Option 3 is wrong because it gives Marquinhos to England and Messi to Brazil. Option 4 is wrong because it gives Messi to England.

21. 🏠 Karnataka Government Schemes

Q21. Bhoo Guarantee Scheme

Consider the following statements with respect to the 'Bhoo Guarantee Scheme' of Government of Karnataka.

Statement I: Under this scheme, property records across Bengaluru are being scanned, digitized and linked with GIS mapping and Aadhaar-backed systems.
Statement II: The conversion fee for B-Khata to A-Khata has been reduced from 10% to 5% of the guidance value for a limited period.

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

✅ Answer: 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (moderate confidence)

The scheme involves digitising property records and linking them with GIS and Aadhaar-backed systems. It also includes a temporary reduction in the B-Khata to A-Khata conversion fee. The ticks on your scan favour option 1. Options 2, 3 and 4 are wrong because each treats a true statement as false.

⚠️ Note: I could not confirm the 10% to 5% fee detail myself

💰 ECONOMY

Total questions: 13

1. 📊 Poverty & Development

Q36. Amartya Sen's Capability Approach

Consider the following statements with reference to 'Amartya Sen's Capability approach on Poverty':

Statement I: Freedom to achieve well-being is of primary moral importance.
Statement II: Well-being should be understood in terms of people's capabilities and functionings.

Both Statements I and II are correct
Both Statements I and II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

✅ Answer: 1) Both Statements I and II are correct

Sen argues that poverty is a deprivation of capabilities, meaning the real freedom to achieve valued functionings (being nourished, educated, healthy), not just low income. Both statements restate this view. Options 2, 3 and 4 are wrong because each treats a correct statement as incorrect.

📌 Easy trick: Capability = what a person is genuinely able to do or be.

2. 🌾 Land Reforms

Q38. Land Reform Review Committees

Match the following lists related to Land Reforms Review Committees.

List-I	List-II
(a) Tenancy Reforms	(i) Prof. M. L. Dantwala
(b) Size of Land Holdings	(ii) Sri R. K. Patil
(c) Problems of Reorganisation	(iii) Sri G. L. Nanda
(d) Bhoodan	(iv) Prof. D. R. Gadgil

a–ii, b–i, c–iii, d–iv
a–iv, b–iii, c–ii, d–i
a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv
a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii

✅ Answer: 1) a–ii, b–i, c–iii, d–iv (low confidence)

This is a set of Congress Agrarian Reforms Committee-type assignments, and I could not verify each pairing from memory. Option 1 fits best, and the ticks on your scan point to it. Options 2, 3 and 4 differ in at least two pairings.

⚠️ Note: Verify this against the official key.

3. 🏦 Banking & Development

Q39. Viksit Bharat Mission

Identify the bank which is committed to support India's 'Viksit Bharat Mission' of becoming a developed country by 2047, with an emphasis on inclusive growth, world class infrastructure and private sector development.

Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India
Asian Development Bank
Industrial Financial Corporation of India
Soft Bank

✅ Answer: 2) Asian Development Bank (medium confidence)

The description (inclusive growth, world-class infrastructure, private sector development) matches the Asian Development Bank's country partnership strategy for India. IFCI is not a bank in the strict sense, since it is a government-owned financial institution that was converted into an NBFC. ICICI (option 1) is a commercial bank without a mission-level commitment of this kind, and SoftBank (option 4) is an investment group.

⚠️ Note: The scan has IFCI written beside option 3, but I believe option 2 is the better answer. Verify against the official key.

4. 📏 Multidimensional Poverty

Q40. Multidimensional Poverty Index

As per Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), an individual is considered deprived in the years-of-schooling indicator, if they are 10 years or older and have completed fewer than 6 years of schooling. Which individual would be classified as deprived?

A 15-year-old who has completed 7 years of schooling
A 12-year-old who has completed 6 years of schooling
An 18-year-old who has completed 3 years of schooling
A 10-year-old who has completed 6 years of schooling

✅ Answer: 3) An 18-year-old who has completed 3 years of schooling

The person must be 10 or older and have under 6 years of schooling. Only option 3 meets both conditions. Options 1, 2 and 4 are wrong because each has completed 6 or more years of schooling.

5. 🌾 NABARD & Rural Development

Q41. Role of NABARD

'NABARD' is entrusted with which of the following in discharging its role as facilitator for rural prosperity?

(a) Providing refinance to lending institutions in rural areas.
(b) Bringing about or promoting institutional development in rural areas.
(c) Evaluating, monitoring and inspecting the client banks.
(d) To act as a regulator for Cooperative Banks.

(a), (b) and (c) are correct
(a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct
(a) and (c) are correct
(b), (c) and (d) are correct

✅ Answer: 1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

NABARD provides refinance, promotes institutional development and inspects client banks. Statement (d) is wrong because the regulator of cooperative banks is the RBI, while NABARD only supervises and inspects them. Options 2 and 4 are wrong because they include (d). Option 3 is wrong because it leaves out (b).

6. 🌱 Rural Entrepreneurship

Q42. Equator Initiative Award

The 'Equator Initiative Award' received by Bibi Fatima Women's Self-Help Group is associated with which area?

Sustainable rural entrepreneurship and biodiversity conservation
Urban infrastructure development
Industrial production and export
Information technology development

✅ Answer: 1) Sustainable rural entrepreneurship and biodiversity conservation

The Equator Initiative honours community initiatives that link local livelihoods with conservation, so option 1 fits. Options 2, 3 and 4 are wrong because the award is not given for urban, industrial or IT work.

7. 💰 Fiscal Deficits

Q43. Types of Deficits

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
(a) Primary Deficit	(i) Borrowings
(b) Fiscal Deficit	(ii) Deduct interest payments from fiscal deficit
(c) Revenue Deficit	(iii) Total expenditure minus total non-debt receipts
(d) Debt Capital Receipts	(iv) Excess spending to tax and non-tax revenue

a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv
a–iv, b–iii, c–ii, d–i
a–ii, b–iii, c–iv, d–i
a–iii, b–iv, c–i, d–ii

✅ Answer: 3) a–ii, b–iii, c–iv, d–i

Primary deficit is the fiscal deficit minus interest payments. Fiscal deficit is total expenditure minus total non-debt receipts. Revenue deficit is the excess of revenue expenditure over revenue receipts. Debt capital receipts are borrowings. Options 1, 2 and 4 each mismatch at least two of these.

8. ₿ Cryptocurrency

Q44. Non-Cryptocurrency

Which one of the following is/are not cryptocurrency?

(a) Bitcoin
(b) Libra
(c) Litecoin
(d) DM

(a) and (d)
(b) only
(b) and (c)
(d) only

✅ Answer: 4) (d) only

Bitcoin, Libra (Facebook's proposed digital currency, later renamed Diem) and Litecoin are all cryptocurrencies. "DM" is not one. Options 1, 2 and 3 are wrong because they name Bitcoin, Litecoin or Libra as non-cryptocurrencies.

9. 🏦 Non-Performing Assets

Q45. Government Measures to Control NPA

Which of the following measures are/is taken by Government of India to control NPA?

(a) Indradhanush Mission
(b) Capitalisation
(c) Recapitalisation
(d) Stressed Assets

(a), (c) and (d)
(a), (b) and (c)
(b), (c) and (d)
(b) only

✅ Answer: 1) (a), (c) and (d) (low confidence)

Indradhanush and recapitalisation are clear measures. "Stressed Assets" is the third item the paper counts, via stressed-asset resolution frameworks. "Capitalisation" (b) is not a distinct NPA-control measure. Options 2, 3 and 4 are wrong because they include (b).

⚠️ Note: The scan's ticks are on (a) and (c) and a mark on option 1. This is a loosely worded question, so verify it.

10. 📈 Economic Planning

Q46. Planning Models

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer:

List-I	List-II
(a) The Visvesvaraya Plan	(i) 1945
(b) The Congress Plan	(ii) 1938
(c) The Gandhian Plan	(iii) 1944
(d) The People's Plan	(iv) 1934

a–iv, b–i, c–iii, d–ii
a–iv, b–i, c–ii, d–iii
a–iv, b–ii, c–i, d–iii
a–iv, b–ii, c–iii, d–i

✅ Answer: 1) a–iv, b–i, c–iii, d–ii

The Visvesvaraya Plan was 1934, the Congress (National Planning Committee) plan was 1938, the Gandhian Plan was 1944, and the People's Plan was 1945. Options 2, 3 and 4 each assign at least two wrong years.

11. ₹ Indian Currency Symbol

Q47. Designer of the Indian Rupee Symbol

Who designed the Indian currency symbol (₹)?

D. Udaya Kumar
D. Vijay Kumar
D. Pradeep Kumar
D. Ajay Kumar

✅ Answer: 1) D. Udaya Kumar

D. Udaya Kumar designed the symbol, which the Government adopted in 2010. The other names are invented distractors.

12. 🏧 ATM Categories

Q48. Labelled ATMs

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer:

List-I	List-II
(a) Green Label ATM	(i) Share transactions
(b) Orange Label ATM	(ii) Agricultural transactions
(c) Yellow Label ATM	(iii) Transactions for women
(d) Pink Label ATM	(iv) E-commerce

a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv
a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii
a–i, b–ii, c–iv, d–iii
a–i, b–iv, c–ii, d–iii

✅ Answer: 2) a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii

Green ATMs are for agricultural transactions, orange for share transactions, yellow for e-commerce and pink for women. Options 1, 3 and 4 are wrong because each swaps green and orange or mismatches yellow and pink.

13. 🧵 PM MITRA

Q49. 5F Vision of PM MITRA

What are the '5F' vision of PM MITRA (Mega Integrated Textiles Region and Apparel) park?

Farm, Fibre, Factory, Fashion, Foreign
Farm, Fibre, Factory, Finance, Foreign
Farm, Fibre, Factory, Finance, Firms
Farm, Fibre, Fashion, Firms, Foreign

✅ Answer: 1) Farm, Fibre, Factory, Fashion, Foreign

The 5F chain links the textile value chain from farm to export. Options 2, 3 and 4 are wrong because "Finance" and "Firms" are not part of the vision.

14. 🏠 Housing Price Index

Q50. First Official Housing Price Index

Which of the following is the first official Housing Price Index of India?

NHB HOUSEDEX
NHB RESIDEX
NHB HUPRDEX
NHB HOUSE PRDEX

✅ Answer: 2) NHB RESIDEX

RESIDEX, launched by the National Housing Bank in 2007, was India's first official housing price index. Options 1, 3 and 4 are not real indices.

🌱 AGRICULTURE & ENVIRONMENT

Total questions: 2

1. 🌾 Sustainable Agriculture

Q37. National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture

Consider the following statements regarding the objectives of National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA):

(a) To devise strategic plans at the agro-climatic zone level.
(b) To enhance agricultural productivity through customised interventions such as use of biotechnology.
(c) To facilitate access to information and institutional support by expanding automatic weather station networks.
(d) To promote development of industrial sector.

(a), (b) and (c) are correct
(b), (c) and (d) are correct
(a), (b) and (d) are correct
Only (b) and (d) are correct

✅ Answer: 1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

NMSA aims at climate-resilient agriculture through agro-climatic planning, productivity gains and weather and information support. Statement (d) is wrong because industrial development is not an NMSA objective. Options 2, 3 and 4 are wrong because they include (d).

2. 🌧️ Drought

Q66. Types of Drought

Consider the following statements related to Drought:

(a) Drought is negative balance between precipitation and water use in a geographic region.
(b) Drought can occur by improper distribution of rain in time and space.
(c) There are two types of drought: Meteorological drought and Agricultural drought.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) only
(a) and (b) only
(a), (b) and (c)
(a) and (c) only

✅ Answer: 2) (a) and (b) only

Statements (a) and (b) correctly describe drought. Statement (c) is wrong because there are three main types: meteorological, hydrological and agricultural. Options 3 and 4 are wrong because they include (c). Option 1 is wrong because it leaves out (b).

⚠️ Note: Your text gave option 3, and the scan has that ticked. Option 2 is the factually correct answer.

🔬 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

Total questions: 15

1. 🧪 Chemistry

Q51. Ethanol

Consider the following statements:

(a) Ethanol is in liquid form at room temperature.
(b) Ethanol is soluble in water.
(c) Ethanol reacts with sodium leading to evolution of oxygen gas.
(d) Ethanol contains two carbon atoms.

(a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct
(a), (b) and (c) are correct
(a), (c) and (d) are correct
(a), (b) and (d) are correct

✅ Answer: 4) (a), (b) and (d) are correct

Ethanol is a liquid, mixes freely with water and has two carbon atoms (C₂H₅OH). Statement (c) is wrong because sodium releases hydrogen, not oxygen. Options 1, 2 and 3 are wrong because they include (c).

📌 Equation: 2C₂H₅OH + 2Na → 2C₂H₅ONa + H₂↑

2. 🧬 Biology — Protein

Q52. Denaturation of Protein

Examples for denaturation of protein are:

(a) Curdling of milk
(b) Esterification
(c) Coagulation of egg
(d) Inversion of cane sugar

(a) and (b) only
(a) and (c) only
(a) and (d) only
(b) and (c) only

✅ Answer: 2) (a) and (c) only

Curdling of milk and coagulation of egg both involve proteins losing their structure. Esterification and inversion of cane sugar are chemical reactions that do not involve proteins. Options 1, 3 and 4 are wrong because each includes (b) or (d).

3. 🎈 Physics & Gases

Q53. Helium vs Hydrogen

Instead of hydrogen gas, helium gas is used to inflate tyres of aeroplane. This is because of the following reasons:

(a) Hydrogen gas is lighter than helium
(b) Helium is a lighter gas compared to hydrogen
(c) Hydrogen gas is highly combustible and hence risky
(d) Storing the hydrogen gas is difficult, instead helium is used

(c) and (d)
(b) and (c)
(a) and (c)
(b) and (d)

✅ Answer: 3) (a) and (c) (moderate confidence)

Statement (a) is a true fact, since hydrogen is lighter than helium. Statement (c) is true and is the real reason helium is used. Statement (b) is false. Statement (d) is not a recognised textbook reason. So (a) and (c) is the best fit, and options 1, 2 and 4 are wrong because they include (b) or (d).

⚠️ Note: Your text gave option 1, and the scan has a tick on (b), which is factually wrong. This question is poorly framed, so verify it.

4. ⛽ Energy Resources

Q54. Fossil Fuels

Identify a pair of fossil fuels from the following:

(a) Coal
(b) Wood
(c) Petroleum
(d) Biogas
(e) Natural gas

(a) and (b) only
(b) and (c) only
(a) and (d) only
(c) and (e) only

✅ Answer: 4) (c) and (e) only

Petroleum and natural gas are fossil fuels. Options 1, 2 and 3 are wrong because each includes wood or biogas, which are biomass fuels. Coal is also a fossil fuel, but no option pairs it with another fossil fuel.

5. 🦷 Environmental Health

Q55. Fluoride and Nitrate Pollution

The concentration of fluoride ions and nitrate ions in drinking water above the tolerable limit respectively causes:

'Blue baby' syndrome and brown mottling of skin
Kidney damage and brown mottling of teeth
Kidney damage and laxative effect
Brown mottling of teeth and 'blue baby' syndrome

✅ Answer: 4) Brown mottling of teeth and 'blue baby' syndrome

Excess fluoride causes dental fluorosis (mottled teeth), and excess nitrate causes methaemoglobinaemia, called blue baby syndrome. Option 1 reverses the two causes. Options 2 and 3 are wrong because kidney damage and a laxative effect are not the standard effects.

6. 🚆 Sound Waves

Q56. Doppler Effect

The pitch or frequency of the whistle of a fast-moving train appears to increase or decrease as the train approaches or recedes away from the observer respectively. This motion related frequency change is called:

Raman effect
Doppler effect
Resonance
Beats

✅ Answer: 2) Doppler effect

The Doppler effect is the apparent change in frequency caused by relative motion between source and observer. The Raman effect concerns light scattering, resonance concerns matching natural frequencies, and beats come from two close frequencies interfering.

7. 🚌 Newton's Laws

Q57. Inertia of Motion

Passengers are thrown forward from their seats when a speeding bus stops suddenly. This is due to:

Inertia of rest
Inertia of motion
Inertia of direction
Force exerted by the bus

✅ Answer: 2) Inertia of motion

The bus stops but the passengers' bodies tend to keep moving forward. Option 1 would apply if passengers fell backward when the bus starts. Option 3 applies when turning. Option 4 is wrong because the bus applies no forward force.

8. ⚙️ Force & Motion

Q58. Horse and Lawn Mower

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: A horse cannot pull a cart and run in empty space.
Statement II: It is easier to pull a lawn mower than to push it.

Both Statements I and II are correct
Both Statements I and II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

✅ Answer: 1) Both Statements I and II are correct

A horse needs ground friction to push backwards and receive a forward reaction, so it cannot do this in empty space. When pulling a mower, the force has an upward component that reduces the normal reaction and friction, whereas pushing adds downward force. Options 2, 3 and 4 are wrong because each treats a correct statement as false.

9. 🎸 Sound

Q59. Guitar String

When the tension of the guitar string is increased by a musician, which characteristic of sound produced by it changes?

Loudness only
Speed only
Pitch only
Quality of sound only

✅ Answer: 3) Pitch only

Higher tension raises the vibration frequency, which raises the pitch. Loudness depends on amplitude and quality on the waveform, so options 1 and 4 are wrong. Option 2 is wrong because the question asks about a characteristic of the sound, and the one that changes is pitch.

10. 💧 Properties of Matter

Q60. Physical Properties

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
(a) If the gravity effect is neglected, then liquid drops are spherical in shape	(i) Viscosity
(b) Ability of a body to regain its original shape and size after deforming forces	(ii) Surface tension
(c) Friction between the layers of the liquid	(iii) Elasticity

a–iii, b–i, c–ii
a–i, b–ii, c–iii
a–ii, b–iii, c–i
a–iii, b–ii, c–i

✅ Answer: 3) a–ii, b–iii, c–i

Surface tension makes drops spherical, elasticity restores shape, and viscosity is internal friction between liquid layers. Options 1, 2 and 4 each mismatch at least two properties.

11. 👶 Human Biology

Q61. Colostrum

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The milk produced during the initial few days of lactation in humans is called colostrum.
Statement II: Colostrum contains several antibodies absolutely essential to develop resistance in newborn babies.

Both Statements I and II are correct
Both Statements I and II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

✅ Answer: 1) Both Statements I and II are correct

Colostrum is the first milk after childbirth and is rich in antibodies, especially IgA, which give passive immunity to the newborn. Options 2, 3 and 4 treat a correct statement as false.

12. 🦠 Diseases & Immunity

Q62. Incorrect Statements

Consider the following statements and choose the INCORRECT statements:

(a) Immunization or injection of infectious organisms induce natural active immunity.
(b) If the body is unable to recognize self and nonself cells, it causes autoimmune diseases.
(c) AIDS is produced by the decrease in helper T-lymphocytes.
(d) All cancers are malignant types which transfer to other organs.
(e) The organization called NACO educates the public about AIDS.

(a), (d) and (e)
(a), (b) and (c)
(a) and (d)
(b) and (e)

✅ Answer: 3) (a) and (d)

Statement (a) is incorrect because immunisation gives artificial active immunity. Statement (d) is incorrect because only malignant cancers spread, and benign tumours do not. Statements (b), (c) and (e) are correct, which rules out options 1, 2 and 4.

13. 🧫 Biological Classification

Q63. Five Kingdom Classification

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
(a) Protista	(i) Mushroom
(b) Fungi	(ii) Bacteria
(c) Monera	(iii) Mustard
(d) Plantae	(iv) Amoeba

a–iv, b–i, c–ii, d–iii
a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv
a–i, b–iii, c–iv, d–ii
a–iv, b–ii, c–i, d–iii

✅ Answer: 1) a–iv, b–i, c–ii, d–iii

Amoeba is Protista, mushroom is Fungi, bacteria are Monera and mustard is Plantae. Options 2, 3 and 4 each mismatch at least two kingdoms.

14. 🌱 Botany

Q64. Types of Placentation

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
(a) Marginal	(i) Marigold
(b) Axile	(ii) Dianthus
(c) Parietal	(iii) Pea
(d) Free central	(iv) Mustard
(e) Basal	(v) China rose

a–iii, b–iv, c–v, d–ii, e–i
a–iv, b–iii, c–v, d–i, e–ii
a–i, b–ii, c–iv, d–v, e–iii
a–iii, b–v, c–iv, d–ii, e–i

✅ Answer: 4) a–iii, b–v, c–iv, d–ii, e–i

Pea has marginal placentation, China rose has axile, mustard has parietal, Dianthus has free central and marigold has basal. Options 1 and 2 are wrong because they mismatch the axile and parietal examples. Option 3 is wrong because it mismatches all five.

⚠️ Note: Your text gave option 2, which contradicts the botany, so I changed it to option 4.

15. 🌱 Plant Reproduction

Q65. Seed and Parental Characters

Ramesh found a mango tree with tasty mangoes in his friend's farm. When he asked his friend for a seed of the mango tree, his friend advised him to take a grafted plant of the tree rather than the seed.

Choose the appropriate reason:

Seed may not germinate
Seed may be infected by microbes
Seed may not carry parental character
Seed is not a sexual product

✅ Answer: 3) Seed may not carry parental character

A seed is the product of sexual reproduction and gene recombination, so the seedling may differ from the parent tree. A grafted plant is a clone and keeps the parent's qualities. Option 4 is wrong because a seed is a sexual product. Options 1 and 2 are not the reason.

🌍 GEOGRAPHY

Total questions: 6 (your heading says 10, but only Q67 to Q72 are in this section, and Q73 to Q75 are under Karnataka Geography)

1. 🪨 Rocks

Q67. Igneous Rocks

Consider the following statements:

(a) Igneous rocks are hard, massive and compact.
(b) These rocks are pervious in which water can easily enter.
(c) These rocks are free of fossils.
(d) They are not easily weathered.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a), (b), (c) and (d)
(a), (c) and (d) only
(a), (b) and (c) only
(b), (c) and (d) only

✅ Answer: 2) (a), (c) and (d) only

Igneous rocks form from cooled magma or lava, so they are hard, compact and contain no fossils, and they resist weathering well. Statement (b) is wrong because they are generally impervious, since water cannot easily enter them. Options 1, 3 and 4 are wrong because each includes (b).

⚠️ Note: Your text listed option 4 as "(a), (b) and (d) only". The scan has "(b), (c) and (d) only". I restored the scan's wording. The answer is unchanged.

2. ⛏️ Indian Coalfields

Q68. Major Coal Producing Centres

Identify major coal producing centres name in the given map.

A – Jharia, B – Raniganj, C – Singrauli, D – Talcher
A – Singrauli, B – Talcher, C – Jharia, D – Raniganj
A – Talcher, B – Jharia, C – Singrauli, D – Raniganj
A – Talcher, B – Raniganj, C – Jharia, D – Singrauli

✅ Answer: 1) A – Jharia, B – Raniganj, C – Singrauli, D – Talcher (moderate confidence)

On the map, A and B are close together in the Jharkhand and West Bengal belt, with A (Jharia) to the west of B (Raniganj). C lies further west in the Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh border region, which is Singrauli. D lies to the south-east in Odisha, which is Talcher. The other options place Singrauli or Talcher in the Jharkhand–Bengal cluster, which is wrong.

📌 Important coalfields: Jharia, Raniganj, Singrauli and Talcher.

3. ☀️ Seasons

Q69. Solstices and Equinoxes

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer:

List-I	List-II
(a) Vernal Equinox	(i) June-21
(b) Summer Solstice	(ii) March-21
(c) Autumnal Equinox	(iii) December-22
(d) Winter Solstice	(iv) September-23

a–ii, b–iv, c–iii, d–i
a–ii, b–iii, c–i, d–iv
a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii
a–ii, b–iv, c–i, d–iii

✅ Answer: 3) a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii

The Vernal Equinox falls on March 21, the Summer Solstice on June 21, the Autumnal Equinox on September 23 and the Winter Solstice on December 22. Options 1, 2 and 4 are wrong because each mismatches the Summer Solstice, Autumnal Equinox or Winter Solstice.

📌 Memory: March → Vernal Equinox, June → Summer Solstice, September → Autumnal Equinox, December → Winter Solstice.

⚠️ Note: Your text had a different option 4. I restored the scan's options.

4. 🏞️ Tribes of India

Q70. Tribal-State Matching

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Tribe	State
(a) Gonda	(i) Chhattisgarh
(b) Santhala	(ii) Jharkhand
(c) Toda	(iii) Nagaland
(d) Naga	(iv) Tamil Nadu

a–i, b–ii, c–iv, d–iii
a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii
a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv
a–iii, b–ii, c–i, d–iv

✅ Answer: 1) a–i, b–ii, c–iv, d–iii

The Gond are linked with Chhattisgarh and central India, the Santhal with Jharkhand, the Toda with the Nilgiris in Tamil Nadu, and the Naga with Nagaland. Option 2 swaps the Gond and Santhal states. Option 3 swaps the Toda and Naga states. Option 4 mismatches all four.

5. 🌊 Indus River System

Q71. Tributary Origin

Which of the following tributary of Indus river takes its birth outside India?

The Chenab
The Ravi
The Beas
The Sutlej

✅ Answer: 4) The Sutlej

The Sutlej rises near Lake Rakshastal in Tibet and enters India through Himachal Pradesh. The Chenab, Ravi and Beas all originate inside India, in the Himachal Pradesh Himalaya. Options 1, 2 and 3 are wrong for that reason.

6. 🌊 Oceans

Q72. Saint Helena Island

Saint Helena island is found in which of the following oceans?

Pacific Ocean
Indian Ocean
Arctic Ocean
Atlantic Ocean

✅ Answer: 4) Atlantic Ocean

Saint Helena is a remote volcanic island in the South Atlantic, known as the place of Napoleon's exile. Options 1, 2 and 3 are wrong because the island is not in those oceans.

🗺️ KARNATAKA GEOGRAPHY

Total questions: 3

1. 🏞️ Karnataka Tribes

Q73. Districts and Tribal Communities

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer.

District	Tribal People
(a) South Canara	(i) Jenu Kuruba
(b) Mysore and Kodagu	(ii) Korava
(c) North Canara	(iii) Siddis
(d) Chamarajanagar	(iv) Kaniyan

a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv
a–iii, b–ii, c–i, d–iv
a–iv, b–iii, c–i, d–ii
a–ii, b–i, c–iii, d–iv

✅ Answer: 4) a–ii, b–i, c–iii, d–iv (moderate confidence)

South Canara (coastal Dakshina Kannada) is linked with the Korava (the coastal Koraga group), Mysore and Kodagu with the Jenu Kuruba, North Canara with the Siddis, and Chamarajanagar with the Kaniyan. Option 1 swaps South Canara and Mysore–Kodagu. Option 2 gives the Siddis to South Canara. Option 3 gives the Kaniyan to South Canara and the Siddis to Mysore and Kodagu.

⚠️ Note: Your text gave option 3, which contradicts all of the above. I changed it to option 4. Verify against the official key.

2. 🏛️ Karnataka Administrative Divisions

Q74. Administrative Divisions

Consider the following information:

(a) Bangalore — Bangalore Urban, Ramanagara, Kolara, Mandya
(b) Mysore — Mysore, Chamarajanagara, Dakshina Kannada, Uttara Kannada
(c) Belagavi — Vijayapura, Belagavi, Bagalakote, Dharwada
(d) Kalburgi — Kalburgi, Bidar, Raichur, Davangere

In how many of the above rows, the given information is correctly matched?

Only one
Only two
Only three
All the four

✅ Answer: 1) Only one

Row (c) is correct, since Vijayapura, Belagavi, Bagalkote and Dharwad all belong to the Belagavi division. Row (a) is wrong because Mandya is in the Mysuru division. Row (b) is wrong because Uttara Kannada is in the Belagavi division. Row (d) is wrong because Davangere is in the Bengaluru division. Options 2, 3 and 4 are wrong because only one row is correct.

⚠️ Note: Your text gave "All the four". That cannot be right.

3. 🚢 Inland Waterways

Q75. Inland Waterways of India

Which of the following statements are CORRECT regarding Inland Waterways of India?

(a) Headquarters of Inland Waterways Authority of India is in New Delhi.
(b) Regional offices of the Inland Waterways Authority of India is in Patna, Kolkata, Guwahati and Kochi.
(c) India has total 6 National Inland Waterways.
(d) The longest Inland Waterways is Allahabad–Haldia.

(a) and (b) are correct
(b) and (d) are correct
(a) and (d) are correct
(c) and (b) are correct

✅ Answer: 2) (b) and (d) are correct

Statement (b) is correct because Patna, Kolkata, Guwahati and Kochi are IWAI regional offices. Statement (d) is correct because NW-1, the Ganga from Prayagraj (Allahabad) to Haldia, is the longest at about 1,620 km. Statement (a) is wrong because the IWAI headquarters is in Noida. Statement (c) is wrong because India has 111 National Waterways. Options 1, 3 and 4 are wrong because each includes (a) or (c).

⚠️ Note: Your text gave option 1. Statement (a) is wrong, because the IWAI headquarters is in Noida. If the paper's key says option 1, it is based on older information.

🧠 QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE & REASONING

Total questions: 10

1. 💰 Simple Interest

Q76. Investment and Interest

Kamala invested 1/3 of her capital at 7%, 1/4 at 8% and remaining at 10%. If her annual income is Rs. 1122/-, then find the capital.

Rs. 13,200/-
Rs. 13,500/-
Rs. 14,200/-
Rs. 15,000/-

✅ Answer: 1) Rs. 13,200/-

Let the capital be C. The interest is C × (1/3 × 7% + 1/4 × 8% + 5/12 × 10%) = C × (2.333% + 2% + 4.167%) = 8.5% of C. So C = 1122 ÷ 0.085 = Rs. 13,200. Options 2, 3 and 4 do not give Rs. 1122 at an 8.5% average rate.

⚠️ Note: Your text gave the income as Rs. 1222 and the answer as option 3. The scan says Rs. 1122, and with that figure the answer is exactly option 1. The tick on option 3 in the scan is a student's mark, not a key.

2. ➗ Simplification

Q77. Find the Missing Value

What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?

[(168)² ÷ 56 × 24] ÷ 48 = 14 × ?

✅ Answer: 3) 18

168² = 28,224. Dividing by 56 gives 504, multiplying by 24 gives 12,096, and dividing by 48 gives 252. Since 252 = 14 × 18, the missing number is 18. Options 1, 2 and 4 would make the right side 224, 266 or 238, none of which equals 252.

3. 🔢 Number Series

Q78. Counting Digits

How many 7's are there in the following series which are preceded by 6 which is not preceded by 8?

8 7 6 7 8 6 7 5 6 7 9 7 6 1 8 7 7 6 8 8 6 9 7 6 8 7

One
Two
Three
Nil

✅ Answer: 2) Two

Looking for a 7 directly after a 6, there are three such pairs: the 6–7 at positions 3–4, at positions 6–7 and at positions 9–10. The 6 at position 6 is preceded by 8, so that pair is excluded. The other two 6s are preceded by 7 and 5, so those two sevens count. Options 1, 3 and 4 are wrong because the count is exactly two.

⚠️ Note: My earlier answer was 3, but that was for a different series. This answer uses the series as it appears in your text, so check it against the scan.

4. 🔢 Missing Number

Q79. Find the Missing Number

Find the missing number. The wheel contains: 8, ?, 210, 135, 11, 13.

✅ Answer: 2) 70 (low confidence)

The numbers are arranged in opposite pairs:

8 → 135
13 → 210
11 → ?

✅ Answer: 4) 180

Shortcut:
Opposite number = (given number + 1) × 15

So, 11 → 180.

5. 🦊 Logical Reasoning

Q80. Statement and Conclusions

Statement: All foxes are dogs and all dogs are wolves.
Conclusion I: All dogs are foxes.
Conclusion II: Some wolves are foxes.

Only Conclusion I is correct
Only Conclusion II is correct
Both Conclusions I and II are correct
Both Conclusions I and II are incorrect

✅ Answer: 2) Only Conclusion II is correct

From the statement, foxes are inside dogs and dogs are inside wolves, so all foxes are wolves, which means some wolves are foxes. Conclusion I is wrong because "all foxes are dogs" does not mean all dogs are foxes. Options 1 and 3 are wrong because they accept Conclusion I. Option 4 is wrong because it rejects Conclusion II.

6. 🧩 Venn Diagram

Q81. Venn Diagram

In the above diagram, 'A' represents Hardworking, 'B' represents 'Truthful', 'C' represents 'Honest' and 'D' represents 'Intelligent' employees. Identify the employees who are Truthful, Honest, Intelligent but not Hardworking.

✅ Answer: 2) 6

Using the region lists marked on the scan, the regions common to B, C and D are 6 and 9. Region 9 also lies inside A (Hardworking), so it is excluded, which leaves 6. Option 1 (11) is in A and B only. Option 3 (10) is in A, B and D but not C. Option 4 (9) is inside A.

7. 🧩 Venn Diagram

Q82. Intelligent and Honest Employees

According to the Venn diagram given above, what is the total number of employees who are Intelligent and Honest?

✅ Answer: 1) 28

The regions common to Honest (C) and Intelligent (D) are 5, 6, 8 and 9. Adding them gives 5 + 6 + 8 + 9 = 28. Options 2, 3 and 4 do not match any combination of these four regions.

8. 🧭 Direction Sense

Q83. Distance from Initial Position

A person moves 4 m to East, then he turns right and again moves 3 m to south. Now he turns 135° in anticlockwise direction and moves to the north west direction for 2 m. Now what is his distance from the initial position?

✅ Answer: 1) 3 m

Take the start as (0, 0). After 4 m east and 3 m south the person is at (4, −3). Moving 2 m north-west adds (−1.41, +1.41), which gives (2.59, −1.59). The distance from the start is √(2.59² + 1.59²) ≈ 3.03 m, which is about 3 m. Options 2, 3 and 4 do not match this distance.

⚠️ Note: The question wording is loose. Turning 135° anticlockwise from facing south would point north-east, not north-west. The question states north-west, so the answer above follows that stated direction.

9. 📅 Calendar

Q84. Sundays in a Non-Leap Year

How many months of a non-leap year with 1st January as Sunday can have exactly 5 Sundays?

✅ Answer: 3) 5

With 1 January on a Sunday, the months starting on a Sunday or Saturday (for 30-day months) or Sunday, Saturday or Friday (for 31-day months) get five Sundays. The months are January (starts Sunday), April (starts Saturday), July (starts Saturday), October (starts Sunday) and December (starts Friday). So five months have five Sundays. Option 1 and option 2 undercount, and option 4 overcounts.

⚠️ Note: Your text gave option 2 (4 months). It misses December, which starts on a Friday and has 31 days, so Sundays fall on the 3rd, 10th, 17th, 24th and 31st. Check: 52 weeks plus one extra Sunday gives 53 Sundays in the year, which fits.

10. 🪷 Logical Mathematics

Q85. Pond and Lotus

The number of lotus in a pond doubles everyday. On 30th day, the pond is completely filled with lotus. On which day is exactly half of the pond filled with lotus?

✅ Answer: 2) 29

If the number doubles every day, the pond was half full exactly one day before it was full. Options 1, 3 and 4 are wrong because a pond that was half full on day 10, 15 or 20 would be completely full long before day 30.

Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans
1	2	21	1	41	1	61	1	81	2
2	3	22	2	42	1	62	3	82	1
3	4	23	3	43	3	63	1	83	1
4	1	24	2	44	4	64	4	84	3
5	4	25	2	45	1	65	3	85	2
6	4	26	2	46	1	66	2	86	3
7	1	27	2	47	1	67	2	87	1
8	4	28	3	48	2	68	1	88	4
9	2	29	2	49	1	69	3	89	4
10	1	30	3	50	2	70	1	90	3
11	3	31	3	51	4	71	4	91	1
12	2	32	1	52	2	72	4	92	1
13	4	33	2	53	1	73	4	93	2
14	3	34	3	54	4	74	1	94	2
15	4	35	3	55	4	75	2	95	3
16	1	36	1	56	2	76	1	96	1
17	3	37	1	57	2	77	3	97	2
18	4	38	1	58	1	78	3	98	4
19	2	39	2	59	3	79	2	99	2
20	1	40	3	60	3	80	2	100	4

Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans
1	2	21	1	41	1	61	1	81	2
2	3	22	2	42	1	62	3	82	1
3	4	23	3	43	3	63	1	83	1
4	1	24	2	44	4	64	4	84	3
5	4	25	2	45	1	65	3	85	2
6	4	26	2	46	1	66	2	86	3
7	1	27	2	47	1	67	2	87	1
8	4	28	3	48	2	68	1	88	4
9	2	29	2	49	1	69	3	89	4
10	1	30	3	50	2	70	1	90	3
11	3	31	3	51	4	71	4	91	1
12	2	32	1	52	2	72	4	92	1
13	4	33	2	53	1	73	4	93	2
14	3	34	3	54	4	74	1	94	2
15	4	35	3	55	4	75	2	95	3
16	1	36	1	56	2	76	1	96	1
17	3	37	1	57	2	77	3	97	2
18	4	38	1	58	1	78	3	98	4
19	2	39	2	59	3	79	2	99	2
20	1	40	3	60	3	80	2	100	4

Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans
1	2	21	1	41	1	61	1	81	2
2	3	22	2	42	1	62	3	82	1
3	4	23	3	43	3	63	1	83	1
4	1	24	2	44	4	64	4	84	3
5	4	25	2	45	1	65	3	85	2
6	4	26	2	46	1	66	2	86	3
7	1	27	2	47	1	67	2	87	1
8	4	28	3	48	2	68	1	88	4
9	2	29	2	49	1	69	3	89	4
10	1	30	3	50	2	70	1	90	3
11	3	31	3	51	4	71	4	91	1
12	2	32	1	52	2	72	4	92	1
13	4	33	2	53	1	73	4	93	2
14	3	34	3	54	4	74	1	94	2
15	4	35	3	55	4	75	2	95	3
16	1	36	1	56	2	76	1	96	1
17	3	37	1	57	2	77	3	97	2
18	4	38	1	58	1	78	3	98	4
19	2	39	2	59	3	79	2	99	2
20	1	40	3	60	3	80	2	100	4