KEA CAR/DAR Police Constable Question Paper 06-09-2026 – NHK & HK Papers (English + Kannada) Download
The KEA CAR/DAR Police Constable 2026 written examination was conducted on 06 September 2026. Candidates who appeared for the examination can now use the question papers to verify the questions asked in the exam, compare their attempted answers, and understand the paper pattern for upcoming Karnataka Police examinations.
The NHK (Residual Parent Cadre) and HK (Kalyana Karnataka) question papers are available in Kannada and English versions. The CAR/DAR examination was conducted in separate sessions for the two cadres.
KEA CAR/DAR PC Question Paper 2026 – Download
Candidates can download the available question papers from the links below.
| Question Paper | Download |
|---|---|
| 1. CAR/DAR PC QP 06-09-2026 — Kannada — NHK / RPC | Download PDF |
| 2. CAR/DAR PC QP 06-09-2026 — English — NHK / RPC | Download PDF |
| 3. CAR/DAR PC QP 06-09-2026 — Kannada — HK | Download PDF |
| 4. CAR/DAR PC QP 06-09-2026 — English — HK | Download PDF |
Key answers:
Provisonal Marks Lists: Download
Why Download the 06-09-2026 CAR/DAR Question Paper?
The question paper is useful for:
Checking the questions asked in the actual examination
Comparing answers after the examination
Estimating the probable score
Understanding the difficulty level of the paper
Identifying important GK, Science, Geography, Constitution and other topics
Preparing for upcoming Karnataka Police examinations
Practising previous-year and recently conducted examination questions
The CAR/DAR written examination follows an objective-type format, with 100 questions for 100 marks and a 90-minute duration.
CAR/DAR Police Constable 2026 Question Paper – Important Details
| Particular | Details |
|---|---|
| Recruitment | KEA CAR/DAR Police Constable |
| Exam Date | 06 September 2026 |
| Exam Type | Written Examination |
| Cadres | NHK / RPC and HK |
| Question Paper | Objective Type |
| Total Questions | 100 |
| Maximum Marks | 100 |
| Duration | 90 Minutes |
| Paper Medium | Kannada / English |
PAPER BREAKDOWN
| Topic | Questions |
|---|---|
| 🏺 Ancient Indian History | 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 12, 13, 14, 19 |
| 🕌 Medieval Indian History | 7, 11, 95, 96, 97 |
| 🇬🇧 Modern Indian History | 2, 8, 9, 10, 98, 99 |
| 🟡 Karnataka History | 3, 6, 10, 14, 20, 75, 94 |
| 🏛️ Indian Polity | 78–92 |
| 🌍 Indian Geography | 18, 62, 66, 67, 68, 73, 74 |
| 🗺️ Karnataka Geography | 65, 77, 82 |
| 💰 Economy | 83, 93 |
| 🌾 Agriculture & Sericulture | 25, 26, 84, 93 |
| 🧪 General Science | 22–31, 48–54 |
| 🌱 Environment & Ecology | 17, 28, 31, 48, 49, 57, 65 |
| 🚀 Space & Technology | 45–47, 50, 53, 54, 72 |
| ➗ Mathematics | 32–42 |
| 🧠 Reasoning | 43–44 |
| 🏏 Sports | 15, 21, 61, 69, 70, 71 |
| ⚖️ Ethics & Governance | 51, 55, 58–60 |
| 🏫 Government Schemes/Education | 16, 17, 57, 100 |
| 🌐 International Affairs | 18, 63, 64, 70 |
| 🎨 Art, Culture & Literature | 7, 12, 14, 19 |
| 📰 Current Affairs | 16, 17, 56, 57, 63–65, 69–72, 75 |
| 🧬 Human Biology | 24, 27, 28, 54 |
| 🏭 Chemistry | 22, 23, 29, 30 |
DAR PC NHK 2026 — TOPIC-WISE COMPLETE QUESTIONS
1. ANCIENT HISTORY
Q1. With whom the Romans first started their trade in India?
(1) Shaka States
(2) Magadha Empire
(3) Satavahanas
(4) Tamil States
Answer: (4) Tamil States
Explanation: Roman trade was particularly prominent with the Tamil regions of South India. Ports such as Muziris and Arikamedu were important centres of Indo-Roman trade.
Q3. Identify the correct statements from the codes given below:
(a) Shivamara II wrote ‘Gajashtaka’ in Kannada.
(b) ‘Gajashtaka’ is described as an ‘Onake’ poem.
(c) Shivamara II is one of the greatest Ganga Kings.
(d) Shivamara II ruled between 726 A.D. – 787 A.D.
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
(2) (b) and (d) are correct.
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct.
(4) (a) and (d) are correct.
Answer: (1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
Explanation: Shivamara II was an important Western Ganga ruler associated with Gajashtaka. The dates given in statement (d) are not correct.
Q4. During the Mauryan period, the duty of the officer of ‘Samaharta’ was ______.
(1) Head of Treasury
(2) Head of District Administration
(3) Collector of Revenue
(4) Head of Mines
Answer: (3) Collector of Revenue
Explanation: Samaharta was the chief revenue collector in the Mauryan administrative system. He was responsible for assessment and collection of state revenue.
Q5. Consider the following statements regarding the Gupta period:
Statement I: The Gupta period is called the ‘Golden Age’ of Sanskrit Grammar.
Statement II: The development of Sanskrit grammar was based on the compilations of Panini, Patanjali, Amarashima and Chandragomin.
Which one of the following is correct?
(1) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I.
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Sanskrit grammar developed considerably during the Gupta period. However, the second statement does not directly explain the description of the period as the Golden Age.
Q6. Which of the following places were capital cities of Kalyana Chalukyas?
(a) Manyakheta
(b) Kalyana
(c) Etagi
(d) Badami
(1) (a) and (c)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) (b) and (d)
Answer: (2) (a), (b) and (c)
Explanation: Manyakheta and Kalyana were important political centres of the Chalukyan tradition. Badami is mainly associated with the Early Chalukyas.
Q12. How many of the following are correctly matched?
(a) Ashvaghosha — Saundarananda
(b) Bharata — Natyashastra
(c) Vatsyayana — Kamasutra
(d) Harsha — Harshacharita
(1) Only three
(2) All the four
(3) Only one
(4) Only two
Answer: (2) All the four
Explanation: All four literary works are correctly matched with their authors. They are important sources for ancient Indian literature and culture.
Q13. To which one of the following ages ‘microliths’ are associated?
(1) Neolithic Age
(2) Bronze Age
(3) Palaeolithic Age
(4) Mesolithic Age
Answer: (4) Mesolithic Age
Explanation: Microliths are small stone tools strongly associated with the Mesolithic period. They were often used as components of composite tools.
Q14. Which of the following construction is primarily recorded in Mayuravarma's Chandravalli rock inscription?
(1) Palace
(2) Buddhist Stupa
(3) Jain Basadi
(4) Tank (Lake)
Answer: (4) Tank (Lake)
Explanation: The Chandravalli inscription provides information about Mayuravarma and the Kadamba period. It records activities related to water-reservoir construction.
DAR PC NHK 2026 Question paper …
Q19. In which of the places the Chaityas of the Satavahanas is not found?
(1) Kanheri
(2) Ahichchhatra
(3) Karle
(4) Nasik
Answer: (2) Ahichchhatra
Explanation: Kanheri, Karle and Nasik are associated with Buddhist cave architecture of the western Deccan. Ahichchhatra is not a Satavahana Chaitya site.
2. 🕌 MEDIEVAL INDIAN HISTORY
Q7. ‘Nil Darpan’ a play by Dinabandhu Mitra is in which language?
(1) Hindi
(2) Tamil
(3) Bengali
(4) Marathi
Answer: (3) Bengali
Explanation: Nil Darpan was written by Dinabandhu Mitra in Bengali. It portrayed the exploitation of indigo cultivators by European planters.
Q11. Which Mughal emperor issued a decree granting free trade in Bengal to the British?
(1) Farrukhsiyar
(2) Bahadur Shah
(3) Jahangir
(4) Shahjahan
Answer: (1) Farrukhsiyar
Explanation: Farrukhsiyar issued the famous 1717 farman granting important trade privileges to the English East India Company. It strengthened British commercial influence in Bengal.
Q95. Which Indian City was popularly nicknamed as the “City of Gold” following the vast amount of wealth and Gold acquired by Muhammad Bin Qasim's army?
(1) Multan
(2) Peshawar
(3) Agra
(4) Aror
Answer: (1) Multan
Explanation: Multan was a wealthy medieval centre in northwestern India. Its wealth and famous Sun Temple are mentioned in accounts associated with the Arab conquest.
Q96. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I — Administrative Terms
(a) Zil-i-ilahi
(b) Sijda
(c) Paibos
(d) Barids
List-II — Meaning
(i) Prostration before the Sultan
(ii) Spies
(iii) Kissing Sultan's feet
(iv) Shadow of God's feet
(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
(2) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
Answer: (2) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
Explanation: Zil-i-ilahi refers to the ruler as the Shadow of God. Sijda and Paibos were forms of courtly submission, while Barids were intelligence officials.
Q97. The first Battle of Panipat was held in the year and between:
(1) 1535 A.D. — Babur and Rana Sanga
(2) 1529 A.D. — Babur and Humayun
(3) 1542 A.D. — Babur and Sikandar Shah
(4) 1526 A.D. — Babur and Ibrahim Lodi
Answer: (4) 1526 A.D. — Babur and Ibrahim Lodi
Explanation: The First Battle of Panipat was fought in 1526. Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi and established Mughal rule in India.
3. 🇬🇧 MODERN INDIAN HISTORY
Q2. Identify the incorrect pairs:
(a) Swadesha Mitran — Dayal Singh
(b) Tribune — G.S. Iyer
(c) Rast Goftar — Dadabhai Naoroji
(d) Indian Mirror — Devendranath Tagore
(1) (c) and (d)
(2) (a) and (d)
(3) (a) and (b)
(4) (b) and (c)
Answer: (3) (a) and (b)
Explanation: Swadesha Mitran was associated with G. Subramania Iyer, while The Tribune was founded by Dyal Singh Majithia. The other two associations are correct.
Q8. The Battle of Wandiwash crushed the political and military dreams of ______ in India.
(1) Dutch
(2) Portuguese
(3) French
(4) British
Answer: (3) French
Explanation: The British defeated the French at Wandiwash in 1760. This effectively ended major French political ambitions in India.
Q9. Consider the following statements regarding Lord Irwin:
Statement I: He started women's university in India at Bombay.
Statement II: He convinced Gandhiji to take part in the First Round Table Conference.
(1) Both I and II are correct.
(2) Neither I nor II is correct.
(3) Only I is correct.
(4) Only II is correct.
Answer: (2) Neither I nor II is correct
Explanation: The women's university at Bombay was associated with Dhondo Keshav Karve. Gandhi participated in the Second Round Table Conference, not the First.
Q10. The first government managed Khadi production unit was started at ______ in Mysore State.
(1) Shimoga
(2) Mysore
(3) Badanaval
(4) Bhadravati
Answer: (3) Badanaval
Explanation: Badanaval became an important centre of khadi production in Mysore State. It is associated with the early organised khadi movement.
Q98. Who was the constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly of India?
(1) N.N. Rau
(2) Vasant Krishan Vaidya
(3) B.N. Rau
(4) Prem Behari Narain Raizada
Answer: (3) B.N. Rau
Explanation: Sir B. N. Rau served as Constitutional Adviser to the Constituent Assembly. He prepared important constitutional background material and drafts.
Q99. During which period India had Dominion status?
(1) 9 December, 1946 – 26 November, 1949
(2) 9 December, 1946 – 26 January, 1950
(3) 15 August, 1947 – 26 January, 1950
(4) 15 August, 1947 – 26 November, 1949
Answer: (3) 15 August, 1947 – 26 January, 1950
Explanation: India became an independent Dominion on 15 August 1947. It became a Republic when the Constitution came into force on 26 January 1950.
4. 🟡 KARNATAKA HISTORY
Q20. The venue where the first conference for the unification of Karnataka was held under the chairmanship of Siddappa Kambali is:
(1) Dharawad
(2) Bengaluru
(3) Hubballi
(4) Belagavi
Answer: (1) Dharawad
Explanation: Dharwad was an important centre of the Karnataka unification movement. The movement aimed to unite Kannada-speaking regions.
Q75. In Karnataka under One District One Product (ODOP) scheme, manufacturing of Kinhal Toys is allocated to the district of:
(1) Koppal
(2) Bagalkot
(3) Haveri
(4) Vijayapura
Answer: (1) Koppal
Explanation: Kinhal/Kinnal toys are a traditional Karnataka handicraft. Koppal district is associated with this craft under ODOP.
Q94. Name the King who established Lalbagh in Bengaluru:
(1) Krishna Raja Wodeyar III
(2) Hyder Ali
(3) Tipu Sultan
(4) Kempegowda I
Answer: (2) Hyder Ali
Explanation: Hyder Ali initiated Lalbagh in Bengaluru. Tipu Sultan later expanded and developed the garden.
DAR PC NHK 2026 Question paper …
5. 🏛️ INDIAN POLITY & CONSTITUTION
Q78. Which of the following Article of Indian Constitution explains the Governor can reserve a bill passed by the state legislature for consideration of the President?
(1) Article 206
(2) Article 208
(3) Article 200
(4) Article 204
Answer: (3) Article 200
Explanation: Article 200 deals with the Governor's options regarding bills passed by a State Legislature. One option is reserving a bill for the President.
Q79. Match List-I with List-II:
(a) Sarkaria Commission
(b) Shah Commission
(c) Nanavati Commission
(d) Ranganath Mishra Commission
(i) 1975–77 Emergency
(ii) Issues of religious and linguistic minorities
(iii) Centre-State relations
(iv) 1984 Sikh riots investigation
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
Answer: Sarkaria–Centre-State; Shah–Emergency; Nanavati–1984 riots; Ranganath Mishra–minorities
Explanation: Sarkaria dealt with Centre-State relations and Shah investigated Emergency excesses. Nanavati examined the 1984 riots, while Ranganath Mishra dealt with minorities.
Q80. In which state the President's Rule was first-time imposed in India?
(1) Karnataka
(2) Punjab
(3) Jammu and Kashmir
(4) Gujarat
Answer: (2) Punjab
Explanation: President's Rule was first imposed in Punjab in 1951. It is imposed under Article 356 when constitutional machinery in a state fails.
Q81. Which Article of Indian Constitution makes provision for the establishment of the Supreme Court?
(1) Article 134
(2) Article 144
(3) Article 124
(4) Article 124A
Answer: (3) Article 124
Explanation: Article 124 establishes the Supreme Court of India. It also deals with appointment and service conditions of Supreme Court judges.
Q85. Who can establish a High Court for a Union Territory or put it under the jurisdiction of the High Court of adjacent state?
(1) Supreme Court of India
(2) Union Law Minister
(3) President
(4) Parliament
Answer: (4) Parliament
Explanation: Parliament can establish a High Court for a Union Territory or extend an existing High Court's jurisdiction to it.
Q86. ‘Motion of Thanks’ in Parliament is addressed and delivered by:
(1) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(2) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(3) The Prime Minister
(4) The President
Answer: (4) The President
Explanation: The Motion of Thanks follows the President's Address to Parliament. Parliament subsequently debates and votes on the motion.
Q87. Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution relates to Gender Justice?
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 1
(c) Article 39
(d) Article 51A(e)
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a) and (d)
(3) Only (d)
(4) (a), (c) and (d)
Answer: (4) (a), (c) and (d)
Explanation: Articles 15, 39 and 51A(e) contain provisions promoting equality and dignity of women. Article 1 concerns the Union and its territory.
Q88. With regard to Preventive Detention, which of the following statement is correct?
(1) Was a new idea introduced by makers of Indian Constitution.
(2) Was drawn from Irish Constitution.
(3) Was drawn from the USA Constitution.
(4) Was drawn from the British Constitution.
Answer: (4) British Constitution
Explanation: Preventive detention existed in the colonial legal system and was retained in the constitutional framework. Article 22 provides safeguards concerning preventive detention.
Q89. Identify the incorrect statement regarding Fundamental Rights in India:
(1) Fundamental Rights are guaranteed against the legislature and the executive.
(2) Parliament has the power to modify application of Fundamental Rights to members of Armed Forces and Police Forces.
(3) Fundamental Rights are available not only against state but also against private individuals.
(4) All Fundamental Rights are directly enforceable.
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Fundamental Rights operate differently depending on the particular right. Not every Fundamental Right operates directly against private individuals.
Q90. Arrange the following in Order of Precedence:
(a) Chairman, Minorities Commission
(b) Members of Parliament
(c) Chief Election Commissioner
(d) Attorney General of India
(1) (c), (d), (a), (b)
(2) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(3) (c), (a), (d), (b)
(4) (c), (a), (b), (d)
Answer: As per the paper's intended key: (3)
Explanation: The question tests the official Table of Precedence for constitutional/statutory authorities. The order should be read according to the official precedence table.
Q91. The term of office of the Attorney General of India:
(1) Till the pleasure of the President
(2) Till the pleasure of the Vice-President
(3) Is determined by Parliament
(4) Is determined by the Election Commission of India
Answer: (1) Till the pleasure of the President
Explanation: The Attorney General is appointed by the President under Article 76. The Constitution does not prescribe a fixed term.
Q92. The Indian President's veto power is a combination of:
(a) Pocket Veto
(b) Absolute Veto
(c) Suspensive Veto
(d) Qualified Veto
(1) (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) (a), (c) and (d)
Answer: (2) (a), (b) and (c)
Explanation: The Indian President has absolute, suspensive and pocket veto powers. Qualified veto is not part of the Indian President's veto system.
6. 🌍 INDIAN GEOGRAPHY
Q18. Patent for Geographical Indications comes under which of the following multilateral agreements?
(1) TRIPS
(2) TRIMs
(3) GATT
(4) GATS
Answer: (1) TRIPS
Explanation: TRIPS is the WTO agreement dealing with intellectual property rights. It includes provisions relating to geographical indications.
Q62. Grand Bank and Georges Banks are famous for:
(1) Marine Fishing
(2) Natural Gas Production
(3) Petroleum Products
(4) Coal Production
Answer: (1) Marine Fishing
Explanation: Grand Banks and Georges Bank are major fishing grounds in the North Atlantic. Their nutrient-rich waters support abundant marine resources.
Q66. Match the following Solar Parks with States:
(a) Bhadla Solar Park
(b) Pavagada Solar Park
(c) Kurnool Ultra Mega Solar Park
(d) Kamuthi Solar Power Project
(i) Tamil Nadu
(ii) Rajasthan
(iii) Karnataka
(iv) Andhra Pradesh
(v) Madhya Pradesh
(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-v, d-iii
Answer: (1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
Explanation: Bhadla is in Rajasthan, Pavagada in Karnataka, Kurnool in Andhra Pradesh and Kamuthi in Tamil Nadu.
Q67. Which of the following is not tributary of River Krishna?
(1) Malaprabha
(2) Manjara
(3) Koyna
(4) Ghataprabha
Answer: (2) Manjara
Explanation: Malaprabha, Koyna and Ghataprabha belong to the Krishna basin. Manjara is a tributary of the Godavari.
Q68. Match Railway Zones with Headquarters:
(a) Northern Railway
(b) Southern Railway
(c) South-Western Railway
(d) North-Western Railway
(i) Hubli
(ii) New Delhi
(iii) Jaipur
(iv) Chennai
(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
Answer: (3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
Explanation: Northern Railway is headquartered at New Delhi, Southern Railway at Chennai, South-Western Railway at Hubballi and North-Western Railway at Jaipur.
Q73. ‘Halocline’ is a:
(1) Line joining places having equal salinity.
(2) Line joining hollow places in ocean bottom relief.
(3) Layer of rapidly changing salinity with depth.
(4) Line joining places of zero salinity.
Answer: (3)
Explanation: A halocline is a zone where salinity changes rapidly with depth. It is similar to a thermocline, but for salinity.
Q74. A new island named Nishino-Shima, South of Japan was created by:
(1) Volcanic Eruption and Lava Flow
(2) Plate Tectonic Activity
(3) Deposition of Alluvial Soil by Rivers
(4) Coral Polyps
Answer: (1) Volcanic Eruption and Lava Flow
Explanation: Nishinoshima is a volcanic island. Repeated volcanic eruptions and lava flows expanded the island.
DAR PC NHK 2026 Question paper …
7. 🗺️ KARNATAKA GEOGRAPHY
Q65. With reference to environmental clearance and mining developments in Karnataka, consider:
Statement (a): The Union Environment Ministry recently granted clearance for iron ore exploration in 702 acres of forest land in Karnataka.
Statement (b): This proposed forest land earmarked for exploration is located in Siruguppa Taluk of Ballari District.
(1) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
(2) Neither (a) nor (b) is correct.
(3) Only (a) is correct.
(4) Only (b) is correct.
Answer according to paper: (1)
Explanation: The question concerns a Karnataka forest-land and iron-ore exploration development. It is a current-affairs-based Karnataka geography/environment question.
Q77. Identify the National Parks of Karnataka in the map.
(1) (a) Bannerghatta, (b) Nagarahole, (c) Bandipur, (d) Kudremukha
(2) (a) Bannerghatta, (b) Bandipur, (c) Nagarahole, (d) Kudremukha
(3) (a) Kudremukha, (b) Bandipur, (c) Nagarahole, (d) Bannerghatta
(4) (a) Kudremukha, (b) Nagarahole, (c) Bandipur, (d) Bannerghatta
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Karnataka has major national parks including Kudremukha, Nagarahole, Bandipur and Bannerghatta. The map question tests their geographical locations within the state.
DAR PC NHK 2026 Question paper …
Q82. Identify the correct Sequence of Districts of Karnataka in descending order of their percentage of Urban population as per 2011 Census.
(1) Mysuru, Dakshina Kannada, Dharwada, Gadag, Davangere, Ballary
(2) Dharwad, Mysuru, Davangere, Dakshina Kannada, Ballary, Gadag
(3) Mysuru, Dharwad, Dakshina Kannada, Ballary, Gadag, Davangere
(4) Dharwad, Dakshina Kannada, Mysuru, Ballary, Gadag, Davangere
Answer: (3)
Explanation: The question uses Census 2011 urbanisation data for Karnataka districts. It tests comparative knowledge of district-level urban population.
DAR PC NHK 2026 Question paper …
8. 💰 ECONOMY
Q93. Considering the given factors, identify the determinants of agricultural output growth:
(a) Ownership of land
(b) Political stability
(c) Demand conditions
(d) Technological factors
(1) (a), (b) and (d)
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Agricultural production depends on land arrangements, political/institutional stability, market demand and technology. All four can influence agricultural output.
Q83. Identify the correctly matched pairs:
(a) Sugarcane — Impure raw material
(b) Cotton — Pure raw material
(c) Footloose industry — Consumer market
(d) Start up India — Helps to labourers
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
(2) (b), (c) and (d) are correct.
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct.
(4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Sugarcane is an impure/weight-losing raw material and cotton is relatively pure. Footloose industries are flexible regarding location.
9. 🌾 AGRICULTURE & SERICULTURE
Q25. Bt Cotton plant is resistant to which of the following?
(1) Fungus
(2) Viruses
(3) Bacteria
(4) Insects
Answer: (4) Insects
Explanation: Bt cotton contains genes from Bacillus thuringiensis. The resulting Bt toxin provides resistance against specific insect pests.
Q84. Following are the breeds of:
(a) Bombyx
(b) Muga
(c) Eri
(d) Tussar
(1) Sheep breeds
(2) Honey bee breeds
(3) Silk worm breeds
(4) Silk worm breeds
Answer: Silk worm breeds
Explanation: These are associated with silkworms and different varieties of silk. They are important in India's sericulture sector.
🐟 22. AGRICULTURAL & RESEARCH INSTITUTIONS
Q26. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct option:
List-I — Place
(a) Lucknow
(b) Mumbai
(c) Goa
(d) New Delhi
List-II — Head Office
(i) Central Institute of Fisheries Education
(ii) National Institute of Oceanography
(iii) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
(iv) National Bureau of Fish Genetic Resources
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
Answer: (3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
Explanation: NBFGR is headquartered at Lucknow, CIFE at Mumbai, NIO at Goa and ICAR at New Delhi. This question combines agriculture, fisheries and institutional geography.
DAR PC NHK 2026 Question paper …
10. 🧪 GENERAL SCIENCE
Q22. DDT, an organic insecticide mainly contains:
(1) Chlorine
(2) Sulphur
(3) Nitrogen
(4) Oxygen
Answer: (1) Chlorine
Explanation: DDT contains carbon, hydrogen and chlorine. Its chemical name is dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane.
Q23. Synthetic indicator among the following is:
(1) Methyl Orange
(2) Red Cabbage Leaves
(3) Turmeric
(4) Litmus
Answer: (1) Methyl Orange
Explanation: Methyl orange is a synthetic acid-base indicator. Turmeric and red cabbage are natural indicators.
Q24. Which of the following STIs are completely curable if detected early and treated properly?
(a) Hepatitis-B
(b) Syphilis
(c) Genital herpes
(d) HIV/AIDS
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) Only (b)
(3) (a) and (b)
(4) (b) and (c)
Answer: (2) Only (b)
Explanation: Syphilis is a bacterial infection that can be cured with appropriate antibiotics. HIV and genital herpes do not currently have a complete cure.
Q27. (i) Number of bones present in an adult human & (ii) number of bones present in an adult human skull.
(1) (i) 210, (ii) 20
(2) (i) 206, (ii) 22
(3) (i) 216, (ii) 26
(4) (i) 260, (ii) 24
Answer: (2) 206, 22
Explanation: The adult human skeleton normally has 206 bones. The skull has 22 bones—8 cranial and 14 facial.
Q28. Sleeplessness, increased heartbeat and altered breathing pattern are the effects of ______ pollution.
(1) Air
(2) Soil
(3) Water
(4) Noise
Answer: (4) Noise
Explanation: Excessive noise can disturb sleep and affect cardiovascular and nervous-system functions. Prolonged exposure may increase stress.
Q29. Which of the following reacts with acid and forms salt and water?
(1) CaO
(2) CO
(3) CO₂
(4) SO₂
Answer: (1) CaO
Explanation: Calcium oxide is a basic oxide. It reacts with acids to produce salt and water.
Q30. ______ is a mixture of about 200 substances.
(1) Coal Gas
(2) Activated Charcoal
(3) Coke
(4) Coal Tar
Answer: (4) Coal Tar
Explanation: Coal tar is a complex mixture obtained during destructive distillation of coal. It contains numerous organic compounds.
Q31. Which is the correct sequence according to the flow of energy in an ecosystem?
(a) Carnivores
(b) Herbivores
(c) Sunlight
(d) Producers
(1) (c), (d), (b), (a)
(2) (d), (c), (b), (a)
(3) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(4) (d), (b), (a), (c)
Answer: (1) (c), (d), (b), (a)
Explanation: Energy originates from sunlight and is captured by producers. It then moves to herbivores and finally to carnivores.
🧬 23. HUMAN BIOLOGY
Q27. (i) Number of bones present in an adult human & (ii) number of bones present in an adult human skull.
(1) 210 and 20
(2) 206 and 22
(3) 216 and 26
(4) 260 and 24
Answer: (2) 206 and 22
Explanation: The adult human skeleton contains 206 bones. The skull contains 22 bones in total.
🌳 24. ENVIRONMENT / POLLUTION
Q28. Sleeplessness, increased heartbeat and altered breathing pattern are the effects of ______ pollution.
(1) Air
(2) Soil
(3) Water
(4) Noise
Answer: (4) Noise
Explanation: Excessive noise can disturb sleep and affect cardiovascular and respiratory functions. It can also increase stress levels.
🏭 25. INDUSTRIAL CHEMISTRY
Q30. ______ is a mixture of about 200 substances.
(1) Coal Gas
(2) Activated Charcoal
(3) Coke
(4) Coal Tar
Answer: (4) Coal Tar
Explanation: Coal tar is a complex mixture obtained from coal processing. It contains many organic compounds used in different industries.
📊 26. INDIAN ECONOMY / AGRICULTURE
Q93. Considering the given factors, identify the determinants of agricultural output growth:
(a) Ownership of land
(b) Political stability
(c) Demand conditions
(d) Technological factors
(1) (a), (b) and (d)
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Land ownership, political stability, demand and technology can all affect agricultural production. Hence all four factors are relevant.
11. 🌱 ENVIRONMENT & ECOLOGY
Q17. Expand ‘NAMASTE’:
(1) National Action for Medical Science Education
(2) National Action for Mechanised Sustainable Environment
(3) National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem
(4) National Association for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem
Answer: (3)
Explanation: NAMASTE is focused on mechanised sanitation and improving the safety and welfare of sanitation workers. It aims to eliminate hazardous manual sewer/septic-tank cleaning.
Q48. Earth's magnetism is due to:
(1) Solar Effect
(2) Magnus Effect
(3) Dynamo Effect
(4) Doppler Effect
Answer: (3) Dynamo Effect
Explanation: Earth's magnetic field is produced by movements of electrically conducting molten material in its outer core. This is called the geodynamo.
Q49. The device commonly used in thermal power plants and industries to remove particulate matter from exhaust gases:
(1) Exhaust Fans
(2) Electrostatic Precipitator
(3) Absorption Towers
(4) Catalytic Converter
Answer: (2) Electrostatic Precipitator
Explanation: Electrostatic precipitators remove fine particulate matter from industrial exhaust gases. They electrically charge particles and collect them on plates.
12. 🚀 SPACE & TECHNOLOGY
Q45. The first Asian country to send space mission (Mars Orbiter Mission) to the planet Mars as a part of its interplanetary project is:
(1) Japan
(2) Singapore
(3) China
(4) India
Answer: (4) India
Explanation: India's Mars Orbiter Mission entered Mars orbit in 2014. India became the first Asian country to successfully reach Mars orbit.
Q46. DTH (Direct To Home) receives signals from:
(1) Astronomical Satellite
(2) Geostationary Satellite
(3) Polar Satellite
(4) Navigational Satellite
Answer: (2) Geostationary Satellite
Explanation: Geostationary satellites remain apparently fixed over a particular point on Earth. This makes them useful for DTH broadcasting.
Q47. Match:
(a) Uranium 235
(b) Graphite
(c) Cadmium
(d) Plutonium
(i) Moderator
(ii) Control rod
(iii) Transuranic element
(iv) Fuel
(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
Answer: (3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
Explanation: U-235 is fuel, graphite is a moderator and cadmium is used as a neutron-absorbing control material. Plutonium is a transuranic element.
Q50. Expand T.B.G.R.
(1) Tropical Botanical Genera and Research
(2) Tropical Botanical Genetics and Research
(3) Tropical Botanical Garden and Research
(4) Temperate Biotechnology Garden and Research
Answer: (3)
Explanation: TBGR refers to the Tropical Botanical Garden and Research Institute. It is associated with botanical research and plant conservation.
Q53. KAMINI is:
(1) A mobile surveillance radar system for low level target detection.
(2) A 3D medium range surveillance radar system.
(3) A thorium based thermal breeder reactor.
(4) A plutonium based fast breeder reactor.
Answer: (3)
Explanation: KAMINI is a research reactor associated with India's thorium-based nuclear programme. It uses uranium-233 fuel.
Q54. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is used to obtain images of internal organs by using:
(1) LASER
(2) Magnetic signals inside human body
(3) X-Ray
(4) Electric signals inside human body
Answer: (2)
Explanation: MRI uses a strong magnetic field and radio-frequency signals. It does not use ionising X-rays.
Q72. Which of the following ISRO satellite is used for communication purpose?
(1) INSAT-1A
(2) Cartosat-3
(3) Chandrayaan-1
(4) Aryabhata
Answer: (1) INSAT-1A
Explanation: INSAT satellites were developed for communication, broadcasting and meteorological services. INSAT-1A was India's first multipurpose geostationary satellite.
DAR PC NHK 2026 Question paper …
13. ➗ Aptitude
Q32. Find the missing number of the following series:
25, 26, ___, 77, 128, 205
(1) 15
(2) 179
(3) 1
(4) 51
Answer: (4) 51
Explanation: The sequence follows addition of the previous two terms: 25 + 26 = 51 and 26 + 51 = 77.
Q33. To complete a piece of work, A takes 50% more time than B. If together they take 18 days to complete the work, how much time must B take?
(1) 40 days
(2) 45 days
(3) 35 days
(4) 30 days
Answer: (4) 30 days
Explanation: If B takes 30 days, A takes 45 days. Their combined work rate gives 18 days.
Q34. If sum of two numbers is 30 and difference of two numbers is 16, then find the multiplication of these two numbers.
(1) 112
(2) 132
(3) 171
(4) 161
Answer: (4) 161
Explanation: The numbers are 23 and 7. Therefore, 23 × 7 = 161.
Q35. Match the following:
(a) 144
(b) 257
(c) 1/4
(d) √2
(i) Non-perfect square
(ii) Rational
(iii) Irrational
(iv) Perfect square
(1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
Answer: (1)
Explanation: 144 is a perfect square, 257 is a non-perfect square, 1/4 is rational and √2 is irrational.
Q36. Find the HCF of 65 and 117.
(1) 16
(2) 13
(3) 12
(4) 14
Answer: (2) 13
Explanation: 65 = 5 × 13 and 117 = 9 × 13. Therefore, HCF = 13.
Q37. If Z = 52 and BAT = 46, then “ACT” will be equal to:
(1) 48
(2) 47
(3) 41
(4) 44
Answer: (1) 48
Explanation: A + C + T = 1 + 3 + 20 = 24. Multiplying by 2 gives 48.
Q38. In how many ways can we paint the six faces of a cube with six different colours?
(1) 90
(2) 180
(3) 30
(4) 60
Answer: (3) 30
Explanation: Six colours can be arranged in 6! ways. Considering 24 rotations as identical gives 6!/24 = 30.
Q39. Find the missing number:
6 8 10
4 8 5
16 56 ?(1) 54
(2) 45
(3) 40
(4) 72
Answer: (3) 40
Explanation: The pattern gives 5 × (10 − 2) = 40. Hence the missing number is 40.
Q40. The calendar for the year 2026 will be the same as that of the year:
(1) 2032
(2) 2037
(3) 2029
(4) 2030
Answer: (2) 2037
Explanation: The weekday arrangement of 2026 repeats in 2037. Hence both years have the same calendar.
Q41. If a car goes 25 metres in a second, then its speed in km/hr is:
(1) 60
(2) 90
(3) 60
(4) 72
Answer: (2) 90 km/hr
Explanation: Convert m/s to km/h using ×18/5. 25 × 18/5 = 90 km/h.
Q42. Find the value of x:
4½ + 3 1/6 + x + 2 1/3 = 13 2/5
(1) 7 3/4
(2) 1 3/4
(3) 5 1/2
(4) 3 2/5
Answer: (4) 3 2/5
Explanation: Add the known terms and subtract from 13 2/5. The remaining value is 3 2/5.
DAR PC NHK 2026 Question paper …
14. 🧠 REASONING
Q43. Painter who is neither a Singer nor a Dancer?
(1) b
(2) g
(3) f
(4) e
Answer: (3) f
Explanation: In the Venn diagram, region f belongs to Painter but lies outside Singer and Dancer.
Q44. Singer who is a Painter but not a Dancer?
(1) b
(2) g
(3) c
(4) d
Answer: (1) b
Explanation: Region b represents the intersection of Singer and Painter while remaining outside Dancer.
DAR PC NHK 2026 Question paper …
15. 🏏 SPORTS
Q15. Identify correctly matched pairs:
(a) Deuce — Tennis
(b) Penalty stroke — Football
(c) Penalty kick — Hockey
(d) Free hit — Cricket
(1) (a), (b) and (d)
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a) and (d)
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Deuce belongs to tennis, penalty stroke to hockey, penalty kick to football and free hit to cricket.
Q21. Identify the correctly matched pairs:
(a) Kho-Kho — 09
(b) Hockey — 14
(c) Cricket — 16
(d) Kabaddi — 07
(1) (a) and (d) are correct.
(2) (a), (c) and (d) are correct.
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct.
(4) (b) and (d) are correct.
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Standard on-field team sizes are 9 for Kho-Kho and 7 for Kabaddi. The figures given for hockey and cricket are not standard.
Q61. Match:
(a) Duleep Trophy
(b) Ryder Cup
(c) Thomas Cup
(d) Davis Cup
(i) Tennis
(ii) Cricket
(iii) Golf
(iv) Badminton
(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
Answer: (2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
Explanation: Duleep Trophy = Cricket, Ryder Cup = Golf, Thomas Cup = Badminton and Davis Cup = Tennis.
16. ⚽ SPORTS CURRENT AFFAIRS
Q69. Which of the following statements with regard to IPL are correct?
(a) First IPL Trophy Winner is Rajasthan Royals.
(b) Kagiso Rabada is 2026 purple cap winner.
(c) R.C.B. and K.K.R. teams hold the record for the most IPL titles.
(d) Highest Individual runs is scored by Chris Gayle.
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
(2) (a), (b) and (d) are correct.
(3) (a), (c) and (d) are correct.
(4) (b), (c) and (d) are correct.
Answer according to the paper: (2)
Explanation: Rajasthan Royals won the inaugural IPL. Chris Gayle holds the record for the highest individual IPL innings score.
Q70. Which countries co-hosted the 2026 FIFA World Cup?
(1) Canada, Mexico and Brazil
(2) US, Canada and Jamaica
(3) US, Canada and Mexico
(4) US, Mexico and UK
Answer: (3) US, Canada and Mexico
Explanation: The 2026 FIFA World Cup is jointly hosted by the United States, Canada and Mexico. It is the first three-country World Cup.
Q71. At which military air base did the Surya Kiran Aerobatic Team celebrate its 30th anniversary in May 2026?
(1) Belagavi
(2) Karwar
(3) Bidar
(4) Yelahanka
Answer: (3) Bidar
Explanation: The Surya Kiran Aerobatic Team celebrated its 30th anniversary at Air Force Station Bidar. Bidar is also associated with the team's training activities.
DAR PC NHK 2026 Question paper …
🏛️ 17. ETHICS, GOVERNANCE & PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
Q51. Identify the core pillars of “Probity in Governance”.
(a) Authority
(b) Integrity
(c) Transparency
(d) Speed
(e) Accountability
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (b), (c) and (e)
(3) (b), (d) and (e)
(4) (b), (c) and (e)
Answer: (4) (b), (c) and (e)
Explanation: Integrity, transparency and accountability are central principles of probity. They promote ethical, responsible and transparent administration.
Q55. The police should enforce the law firmly and impartially, without ______ or favour, malice or ______.
(1) courage and mercy
(2) fear and vindictiveness
(3) confidence and faith
(4) assurance and conviction
Answer: (2) fear and vindictiveness
Explanation: Law enforcement must be impartial and free from personal fear, favour or hostility. It emphasizes fairness and professional conduct.
Q58. Manufacturing, selling or transporting liquor and narcotics that are prohibited by law is called as:
(1) Legalizing
(2) Licensing
(3) Legitimizing
(4) Bootlegging
Answer: (4) Bootlegging
Explanation: Bootlegging refers to illegal manufacture, transportation or distribution of prohibited alcoholic substances. It is a form of illicit trade.
Q59. An official order was sent to you by PU Board to report for evaluation work of PUC II answer scripts. But your daughter has appeared for the same exam. What should you do?
(1) Formally declare that your daughter has appeared for the same examination and ask for exemption.
(2) Don't declare that your daughter has appeared for the same examination as coding of answer papers will be done.
(3) Request to give answer papers for evaluation other than your daughter's answer paper.
(4) Report for the evaluation work without informing that your daughter has appeared for the same exam as it is a government order.
Answer: (1)
Explanation: The correct ethical approach is to disclose the conflict of interest. The evaluator should seek exemption to preserve examination integrity.
Q60. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: A code of ethics is a set of rules and standards that specify the expected behaviour of members within the organisation.
Statement II: A code of conduct is a set of guidelines that outlines the core values, principles and ideals of an organisation.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer: (2)
Explanation: A code of conduct generally specifies expected behaviour and rules. A code of ethics focuses more on values, principles and ethical standards.
DAR PC NHK 2026 Question paper …
🏢 18. GOVERNMENT SCHEMES & SOCIAL SECTOR
Q16. ‘POSHAN ABHIYAN’ under Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) has the following objective:
(1) Maximising brain development in first three years of life.
(2) Maximising brain development in first seven years of life.
(3) Maximising brain development in first six years of life.
(4) Maximising brain development in first five years of life.
Answer: (1)
Explanation: POSHAN Abhiyaan focuses on improving nutrition and child development. The early years, particularly the first 1,000 days, are critical for brain development.
Q57. Which Union Ministry announced plans to revamp existing Forest Rights Act cells and establish streamlined ‘One-stop’ coordinating units?
(1) Ministry of Rural Development
(2) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
(3) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
(4) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Answer: (3) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Explanation: The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal ministry for implementation of the Forest Rights Act. The initiative seeks better coordination and implementation.
Q100. Rearrange the schemes in chronological order:
(a) Rashtriya Madhyamika Shiksha Abhiyan
(b) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(c) UDAAN
(d) Padhe Bharat – Badhe Bharat
(1) (c), (d), (a), (b)
(2) (a), (c), (d), (b)
(3) (b), (a), (d), (c)
(4) (d), (a), (c), (b)
Answer according to the paper: (4)
Explanation: This question tests the chronology of major education initiatives. The schemes address different stages and aspects of school education.
🌐 19. INTERNATIONAL AFFAIRS
Q63. Which of the following statements regarding NATO are correct?
(a) NATO currently has totally 32 member countries.
(b) Italy, Spain, Norway, Ukraine, Sweden are also NATO member countries.
(c) NATO was founded in 1949.
(d) NATO operates under the leadership of the United States of America.
(1) (a) & (c)
(2) (a) & (d)
(3) (a) & (b)
(4) (c) & (d)
Answer: (1) (a) & (c)
Explanation: NATO has 32 members following Sweden's accession in 2024. Ukraine is not a NATO member, making statement (b) incorrect.
Q64. On 28th June, 2026 Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi was conferred with which of the following award by the President of Seychelles, Dr. Patrick Herminie?
(1) The Order of the Daybreak
(2) Grand Cross of the Legion of Honour
(3) Guardian of the Blue Horizon
(4) Order of the White Double Cross
Answer: (3) Guardian of the Blue Horizon
Explanation: The question relates to a 2026 India–Seychelles current-affairs event. The award was associated with leadership, sustainable ocean-resource management and the Blue Economy.
🌏 20. INTERNATIONAL TRADE & GEOGRAPHICAL INDICATIONS
Q18. Patent for Geographical Indications comes under which multilateral agreement?
(1) TRIPS
(2) TRIMs
(3) GATT
(4) GATS
Answer: (1) TRIPS
Explanation: TRIPS is the WTO agreement concerning intellectual property rights. It includes protection for geographical indications.
🧑🔬 21. SCIENCE & ASSERTION–REASON
Q52. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer:
Assertion (A): Electrical appliances with metal body have three electrical connections but an electrical bulb has two electrical connections.
Reason (R): Three pin connections reduce the chance of electric shock.
(1) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is false, but the Reason (R) is true.
(4) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: (2)
Explanation: The third pin provides an earth connection for appliances with metal bodies. Earthing provides a safer path for leakage current and reduces the risk of electric shock.
DAR PC NHK 2026 Question paper …
