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KEA VAO Previous Year Question Papers (PYQ) PDF Download

Download the KEA Village Administrative Officer (VAO) Previous Year Question Paper PDF 2024. Check the latest Paper 1 & Paper 2 syllabus, exam pattern
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KEA VAO Previous Year Question Papers (PYQ) PDF Download | Paper 1 & Paper 2 Exam Pattern

KEA VAO Previous Year Question Papers

KEA VAO Previous Year Question Papers (PYQ) PDF Download 

If you are preparing for the KEA Village Administrative Officer (VAO) Exam 2024, solving the official Previous Year Question Paper (PYQ) is one of the best ways to improve your preparation.

The 2024 KEA VAO Previous Year Question Paper PDF helps candidates understand:

  • Latest exam pattern
  • Difficulty level
  • Important topics
  • Frequently asked questions
  • Time management

Note: Currently, only the 2024 KEA VAO Previous Year Question Paper PDF is available.

VAO 2026 Notification Link

KEA VAO Exam Pattern (English)

PaperSubjectQuestionsMarksDuration
Paper 1General Knowledge1001002 Hours
Paper 2General Kannada, General English & Computer Knowledge1001002 Hours

Total Questions: 200

Total Marks: 200

Negative Marking

  • Every correct answer carries 1 mark.
  • 0.25 marks will be deducted for every wrong answer.
  • Unanswered questions carry no negative marks.

Recruitment Process

The Karnataka Examination Authority (KEA) conducts a written examination for the recruitment of Village Administrative Officers (VAO).

The written examination consists of two papers.

  • Each paper carries 100 marks.
  • Each paper contains 100 objective-type questions.
  • Duration of each paper is 2 hours.
  • The examination is conducted in OMR mode.
  • Candidates must secure the minimum qualifying marks prescribed by KEA.

Paper 1 Subjects

Paper 1 covers General Knowledge, including:

  • Constitution of India
  • Karnataka Constitution-related topics
  • History of India
  • Karnataka History
  • Geography of India
  • Karnataka Geography
  • Indian Economy
  • Karnataka Economy
  • Rural Development
  • Panchayat Raj
  • Science & Technology
  • Environment
  • Current Affairs
  • Disaster Management
  • Mental Ability
  • General Knowledge related to Karnataka

Paper 2 Subjects

Paper 2 includes:

  • General Kannada
  • General English
  • Computer Knowledge

Negative Valuation

  • Every incorrect answer attracts 0.25 negative marks.
  • No negative marks for unanswered questions

VAO Question Paper-1 Analysis

 (2024 ಅಕ್ಟೋಬರ್-27 ರಂದು) 1,000 ಗ್ರಾಮ ಆಡಳಿತಾಧಿಕಾರಿ (VAO) ಹುದ್ದೆಗಳ ನೇಮಕಾತಿಗೆ KEA ನಡೆಸಿದ ಲಿಖಿತ ಪರೀಕ್ಷೆಯ ಪತ್ರಿಕೆ-1ರ ಪ್ರಶ್ನೆ ಪತ್ರಿಕೆ Analysis

⚫️ ಯಾವ ವಿಷಯದ ಮೇಲೆ ಎಷ್ಟೆಷ್ಟು ಪ್ರಶ್ನೆಗಳನ್ನು ಕೇಳಿದ್ದಾರೆ ಎಂಬುದರ ವಿಶ್ಲೇಷಣೆ (Analysis) ಇಲ್ಲಿದೆ:
★ History                 : 18
★ Science & Tech. : 16
★ Geography          : 15
★ Polity / IC            : 13
★ Mental Ability     : 12
★ Current Affairs   : 12 - 16
★ Schemes/Plans : 05
★ Economics          : 05
★ GK / Others         : 03
===================
★ TOTAL                  : 100

Current Affairs Distribution

CategoryQuestions
International65
Awards52, 67
Sports56, 58
Science & Space52, 59
Environment32, 62
Polity57, 69
Economy63, 64
Karnataka Current Affairs29, 32, 73

Total Analysis

  • Direct Current Affairs: 16 questions
  • Current + Static Mix: 7 questions
  • Pure Static GK: Remaining questions

This means around 16–18% of the paper came from recent current affairs, which is consistent with the trend in Karnataka competitive exams.

Most Important Monthly Magazines That Covered These Questions

Nearly all of these topics were covered in:

  1. Vision IAS Monthly Current Affairs
  2. Vajiram & Ravi Current Affairs Magazine
  3. Delhi UPSC Secrets Monthly Magazine
  4. NammaKPSC Monthly Magazine
  5. KAS/KPSC Current Affairs by Spardha Vijetha

In particular, Questions 32, 56, 57, 58, 59, 62, 63, 65, 67, and 69 were among the biggest national current affairs between August and October 2024, making them highly expected for the VAO exam.


KEA VAO Paper-1 — Topic-Wise Questions with Answers & Explanations

1. INDIAN POLITY & CONSTITUTION

Q1. Which one of the following Statements is not correct?

(1) Public Accounts Committee comprises the members of Rajya Sabha only
(2) Public Accounts Committee is the oldest financial committee
(3) The term of office of the members of Public Accounts Committee is one year
(4) A minister is not eligible to become the member of Public Accounts Committee

Answer: (1) Public Accounts Committee comprises the members of Rajya Sabha only

Explanation: The Public Accounts Committee has 22 members — 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha. A minister cannot be a member of the PAC. It is the oldest financial committee of Parliament. 

Q7. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Part-I — Part-II

a) Article 243 — Gram Sabha
b) Article 243D — Reservation of seats in Panchayats
c) Article 243G — Powers, authority and responsibility of Panchayat
d) Article 243J — Election to the Panchayats

Select the correct answer:

(1) Only a and b
(2) Only b and c
(3) Only c and d
(4) Only b and d

Answer: (2) Only b and c

Explanation: Article 243D deals with reservation and Article 243G deals with powers and responsibilities of Panchayats. Article 243A deals with Gram Sabha, while Article 243K deals with Panchayat elections.

Q9. The superintendence, direction and the conduct of elections to the Panchayat are vested with

(1) The Election Commission of India
(2) The Chief Electoral Officer of State
(3) District Administration
(4) The State Election Commission

Answer: (4) The State Election Commission

Explanation: Under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment, Panchayat elections are supervised by the State Election Commission.

Q34. Identify the correct combination:

a) Article 14 — Equality before law
b) Article 21 — Abolition of titles
c) Article 24 — Abolition of untouchability
d) Article 30 — Right to freedom of religion

Select the code for the correct answer:

(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) c and d only
(4) d only

Answer: (1) a only

Explanation: Article 14 = equality before law. Article 18 = abolition of titles; Article 17 = abolition of untouchability; Articles 25–28 deal with freedom of religion. Article 30 concerns minority educational institutions.

Q37. Consider the following statements regarding Gram Panchayats and choose the correct answer:

a) A village or a group of villages comes under the jurisdiction of each Gram Panchayat
b) The President of Gram Panchayat has the power to sign the cheques related to financial affairs
c) Village Administrative Officer (VAO) has to work under Gram Panchayat as per the orders of President of Gram Panchayat
d) There exists no reservation for the selection of President and Vice-President of Gram Panchayat

(1) Only a and b are correct
(2) Only a and d are correct
(3) Only c and d are correct
(4) Only b and c are correct

Answer: (1) Only a and b are correct

Explanation: A Gram Panchayat may cover a village or group of villages. VAOs do not work directly under the Gram Panchayat President, and reservation provisions exist for Panchayat offices.

Q41. Identify the incorrect pair from the following:

(1) Gandhi-Irwin Pact — 1931
(2) Nehru Report — 1928
(3) August Offer — 1939
(4) Wavell Plan — 1945

Answer: (3) August Offer — 1939

Explanation: The August Offer was announced in 1940, not 1939.

Q69. What is the motto of Karnataka State Rural Development and Panchayat Raj University, Gadag?

(1) Krushi Mulam Jagat Sarvam
(2) Na Samruddhi Krushi Vina
(3) Honna Bittevu Holakella
(4) Rural Roots Global Heights

Answer: (4) Rural Roots Global Heights

Explanation: This is the motto of Karnataka State Rural Development and Panchayat Raj University, Gadag.

Q98. Which one of the following slogans of Tourism Department of Karnataka State is correct?

(1) One State Many Worlds
(2) One State Many Countries
(3) One World Many States
(4) One Country Many Worlds

Answer: (1) One State Many Worlds

Explanation: “One State, Many Worlds” is Karnataka Tourism's slogan.

Q100. Who had the longest record of service as President of the Indian National Congress?

(1) Dadabhai Naoroji
(2) Surendranath Banerjee
(3) Rash Behari Ghosh
(4) W. C. Banerjee

Answer: (1) Dadabhai Naoroji

Explanation: Dadabhai Naoroji served as Congress president on multiple occasions, including 1886, 1893 and 1906.

2. ANCIENT & MEDIEVAL INDIAN HISTORY

Q6. Identify the correct sequence of the dynasties who ruled Magadha.

(1) Haryanka – Maurya – Shishunaga – Nanda – Shunga
(2) Haryanka – Shishunaga – Nanda – Maurya – Shunga
(3) Shishunaga – Nanda – Maurya – Shunga – Haryanka
(4) Shunga – Haryanka – Maurya – Shishunaga – Nanda

Answer: (2)

Explanation: The broad dynastic sequence is Haryanka → Shishunaga → Nanda → Maurya → Shunga.

Q13. Sattriya Dance form was introduced by

(1) Rama Deva
(2) Shankaradeva
(3) Birju Maharaj
(4) Mrunal Shukla

Answer: (2) Shankaradeva

Explanation: Sattriya originated in Assam and is associated with Srimanta Sankardeva.

Q15. Choose from the following the incorrect statement about Guptas:

(1) Chandragupta-I married a Licchavi princess and strengthened his kingdom
(2) Samudra Gupta began 'Gupta Era' in 320 C.E.
(3) Samudra Gupta was a great poet and music lover
(4) Chandra Gupta-II earned the title of "Vikramaditya"

Answer: (2)

Explanation: The Gupta Era is generally associated with Chandragupta I, beginning around 319–320 CE. Samudragupta was a noted patron of music and literature.

Q16. Choose the incorrect pair from the following about literature and their author:

(1) Bharavi — Kiratarjuniya
(2) Dandi — Dashakumara Charita
(3) Dharmapala — Mattavilas Prahasana
(4) Shiva Bhattaraka — Hara Parvatiya

Answer: (3) Dharmapala — Mattavilas Prahasana

Explanation: Mattavilasa Prahasana was written by Mahendravarman I, not Dharmapala. Bharavi wrote Kiratarjuniya and Dandin wrote Dashakumaracharita. (Testbook)

Q17. Assertion (A): Iltutmish was the real founder of the Sultanate of Delhi.

Reason (R): Iltutmish was the son of Qutb ud-Din Aibak.

Which one is correct?

(1) Both Statements 'A' and 'R' are correct and 'R' explains 'A'
(2) Both Statements 'A' and 'R' are correct but 'R' does not explain 'A'
(3) Statement 'A' is correct but Statement 'R' is incorrect
(4) Statement 'A' is incorrect but Statement 'R' is correct

Answer: (3)

Explanation: Iltutmish is often regarded as the real consolidator/founder of the Delhi Sultanate. He was not the son of Qutb-ud-din Aibak; he was his son-in-law. (Testbook)

3. KARNATAKA HISTORY

Q14. Which of the following pairs established 'Mazzini Club', a revolutionary association in Belagavi?

(1) Gangadhara Rao Deshpande – Alur Venkata Rao
(2) Srinivasa Koujalagi – Govindrao Yalagi
(3) Govindrao Yalagi – Hanumantha Rao Deshpande
(4) Hanumantha Rao Deshpande – Gangadhara Rao Deshpande

Answer: (2) Srinivasa Koujalagi – Govindrao Yalagi

Explanation: The Mazzini Club of Belagavi was established by Srinivasa Koujalagi and Govindrao Yalagi. (Paripaata)

Q15. According to Perista, name the Sultan who provided water system to Bijapur during Adilshahi's period.

(1) Ismail Adil Khan
(2) Ali Adil Shah I
(3) Mohammad Adil Shah
(4) Ibrahim Adil Shah

Answer: (2) Ali Adil Shah I

Explanation: Ferishta records that Ali Adil Shah I provided the water-supply system to Bijapur.

Q16. Arrange the following armed revolts in correct chronological order which were held against the British in Karnataka.

a) Supa revolt
b) Nippani revolt
c) Sindagi revolt
d) Bidar revolt

(1) a, b, d, c
(2) d, c, a, b
(3) b, d, a, c
(4) d, c, b, a

Answer: (4) d, c, b, a

Explanation: The sequence is Bidar → Sindagi → Nippani → Supa. (Paripaata)

Q43. Identify the Kings of Sangama dynasty who ruled Vijayanagara Empire.

a) Bukka II
b) Vira Narasimha
c) Deva Raya I
d) Mallikarjuna

(1) a and b only
(2) b and d only
(3) a, b and d only
(4) a, c and d only

Answer: (4) a, c and d only

Explanation: Bukka II, Deva Raya I and Mallikarjuna belonged to the Sangama dynasty. Vira Narasimha belonged to the Tuluva dynasty.

Note: Some online answer transcriptions of this paper appear to give a different key for this question; the dynasty classification supports Option 4.

Q44. Identify the persons with historical connection with Shravanabelagola.

a) Chandragupta Maurya
b) Chavundaraya
c) Queen Shantala
d) Chikka Devaraja Wodeyar
e) Malik Kafur

(1) a, b and c
(2) a, b, c and d
(3) a, c, d and e
(4) b, c, d and e

Answer: (2) a, b, c and d

Explanation: Chandragupta Maurya, Chavundaraya, Queen Shantala and Chikka Devaraja Wodeyar have historical associations with Shravanabelagola. Malik Kafur is not included.

Q45. According to Perista, name the Sultan who provided water system to Bijapur during Adilshahi's period.

(1) Ismail Adil Khan
(2) Ali Adil Shah I
(3) Mohammad Adil Shah
(4) Ibrahim Adil Shah

Answer: (2) Ali Adil Shah I

Explanation: Ali Adil Shah I is associated with the development of the water-supply system of Bijapur.

Q70. Match the following:

a) Kadambas — i. Garuda
b) Gangas — ii. Varaha
c) Chalukyas — iii. Lion and Monkey flag
d) Rashtrakutas — iv. Bull

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv

Answer: (3)

Explanation:

  • Kadambas → Lion and Monkey flag

  • Gangas → Bull

  • Chalukyas → Varaha

  • Rashtrakutas → Garuda

This gives a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i. (Paripaata)

4. MODERN INDIAN HISTORY & FREEDOM MOVEMENT

Q11. Which one of the following is in correct chronological order?

(1) Lord Amherst – William Bentinck – Lord Auckland – Lord Ellenborough
(2) William Bentinck – Lord Amherst – Lord Auckland – Lord Ellenborough
(3) Lord Ellenborough – Lord Auckland – Lord Amherst – William Bentinck
(4) Lord Amherst – Lord Auckland – Lord Ellenborough – William Bentinck

Answer: (1)

Explanation: The sequence is:

Lord Amherst → William Bentinck → Lord Auckland → Lord Ellenborough.

Q12. What is the expansion of HRA, a revolutionary association of Indian National Movement?

(1) Hindu Religion Association
(2) Hindustan Republican Association
(3) Hindustan Reforms Association
(4) Hindu Republic Association

Answer: (2) Hindustan Republican Association

Explanation: HRA was founded in 1924 as a revolutionary organization. It later became associated with the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA).

Q23. With reference to the Carnatic wars, consider the following:

a) First Carnatic War: Treaty of Paris
b) Second Carnatic War: Treaty of Pondicherry
c) Third Carnatic War: Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle

How many of the above treaty/treaties is/are correctly matched?

(1) Only one
(2) Only two
(3) All three
(4) None

Answer: (1) Only one

Explanation: The Second Carnatic War ended with the Treaty of Pondicherry. The First ended with Aix-la-Chapelle and the Third with the Treaty of Paris. (Paripaata)

Q24. With reference to Gandhi's early activism in India, consider the following pairs:

a) Champaran Satyagraha: First Civil Disobedience Movement
b) Ahmedabad Mill Strike: First Non-Cooperation Movement
c) Kheda Satyagraha: First Hunger Strike

How many of the above pair/pairs are correctly matched?

(1) Only one
(2) Only two
(3) All three
(4) None

Answer: (1) Only one

Explanation: The question treats Champaran as the first civil-disobedience-type movement. Ahmedabad was associated with Gandhi's first hunger strike, while Kheda was a revenue/no-tax movement. (Scribd)

Q25. Who tried to implement 'Ryotwari' system in South India?

a) Alexander Read
b) Holt Mackenzie
c) Thomas Munro
d) James Grant Duff

(1) a and b only
(2) a, b and c only
(3) a and c only
(4) b, c and d only

Answer: (3) a and c only

Explanation: Alexander Read and Thomas Munro were associated with the introduction of the Ryotwari system in South India.

Q71. Identify the incorrect pair from the following:

(1) Gandhi-Irwin Pact — 1931
(2) Nehru Report — 1928
(3) August Offer — 1939
(4) Wavell Plan — 1945

Answer: (3)

Explanation: The August Offer was announced by Viceroy Linlithgow in 1940.

5. INDIAN & WORLD GEOGRAPHY / ENVIRONMENT

Q10. After ______, the size of the illuminated part of the moon visible from the earth ______ each day.

(1) the new moon day, decreases
(2) the new moon day, increases
(3) the new moon day, remains same
(4) the full moon day, increases

Answer: (2) the new moon day, increases

Explanation: After the new moon, the illuminated portion visible from Earth increases until the full moon.

Q18. The Karnataka State Pollution Control Board for Prevention and Control of Water Pollution was constituted by the Government of Karnataka in pursuance of which of the following Acts?

(1) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
(2) Environment Protection Act, 1986
(3) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977
(4) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981

Answer: (1)

Explanation: State Pollution Control Boards were established under the Water Act, 1974.

Q26. Consider the following statements:

a) In India separate air quality standards have been notified for industrial, residential and sensitive areas.
b) WHO guidelines are common for all land-use areas.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b

Answer: (3) Both a and b

Explanation: India's standards have historically differentiated land-use categories, whereas WHO guideline values are health-based rather than divided into India's land-use categories. (Paripaata)

Q47. Consider the following phenomena and the reasons for the phenomena shown in the table:

a) Twinkling of Stars — Atmospheric refraction
b) Rainbow — Dispersion and total internal reflection
c) Blue colour of sky — Scattering of light

How many of the given pair/pairs above are correctly matched?

(1) Only one
(2) Only two
(3) All three
(4) None of them is correctly matched

Answer: (3) All three

Explanation: All three phenomena are correctly associated with their respective optical causes.

Q49. Read the following:

a) Kalyan Sona
b) Sonalika
c) Jaya
d) Ratna
e) IR-8

Of these, the varieties of rice are:

(1) a, c, d, e only
(2) c, d, e only
(3) a, b, c, e only
(4) b, c, d only

Answer: (2) c, d, e only

Explanation: Jaya, Ratna and IR-8 are rice varieties. Kalyan Sona and Sonalika are wheat varieties.

6. KARNATAKA GEOGRAPHY

Q27. Which of the following statements is not correct about railways in Karnataka?

(1) South-Western Railway was created by merging the Hubli division with the Bangalore and Mysore divisions
(2) In Konkan Railway the first passenger train ran between Mangalore and Karwar in 1993
(3) The Bangalore City Railway Station was renamed as "Kranthiveera Sangolli Rayanna Railway Station" in 2016
(4) The first railway line in the state was from Bengaluru to Madras and it was opened in 1864.

Answer: (2)

Explanation: The first passenger train on the Konkan Railway route ran between Mangalore and Udupi on 20 March 1993, not Mangalore and Karwar. (Wikipedia)

Q28. Which one of the following slogans of Tourism Department of Karnataka State is correct?

(1) One State Many Worlds
(2) One State Many Countries
(3) One World Many States
(4) One Country Many Worlds

Answer: (1) One State Many Worlds

Q29. Which portal launched by the Karnataka Revenue Department allows citizens to track the status of their land-related documents and transactions online?

(1) Parihara
(2) Bhoomi
(3) Kaveri
(4) Pahani online

Answer: (2) Bhoomi

Explanation: Bhoomi is Karnataka's land-records digitisation system.

Q75. The first flood forecasting station was established by the Central Water Commission (CWC) in

(1) Karnal Bridge, Karnal
(2) Tajewala Weir, Yamuna Nagar
(3) Old Railway Bridge, Delhi
(4) Howrah Bridge, Kolkata

Answer: (3) Old Railway Bridge, Delhi

Explanation: The Central Water Commission's early flood-forecasting system included the station at the Old Railway Bridge in Delhi.

Q76. In the iron, steel and iron industries where coal-based in India, the only exception was

(1) Kulti
(2) Jamshedpur
(3) Bhadravati
(4) Burnpur

Answer: (3) Bhadravati

Explanation: The Bhadravati iron and steel plant in Karnataka historically had a different energy/resource context compared with the major coal-based centres listed.

Q77. Which of the following regions is the original habitat of the 'Toda Tribe'?

(1) Kumaon Hills
(2) Nilgiri Hills
(3) Khasi Hills
(4) Garhwal Hills

Answer: (2) Nilgiri Hills

Explanation: The Toda are an indigenous pastoral community traditionally associated with the Nilgiri Hills of Tamil Nadu.

Q78. Match the countries in List I with List II of port cities:

List I (Countries)
a) China
b) Egypt
c) Netherlands
d) United Kingdom

List II (Port Cities)
i. Rotterdam
ii. Shanghai
iii. Alexandria
iv. London

(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv

Answer: (1)

Explanation: China–Shanghai; Egypt–Alexandria; Netherlands–Rotterdam; UK–London.

Q79. Match the following:

a) Padubidri Beach — i. Gokarna
b) Half Moon Beach — ii. Udupi
c) Devbagh Beach — iii. Mangaluru
d) Tannirbhavi Beach — iv. Karwar

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i

Answer: (2)

Explanation: Padubidri–Udupi; Half Moon–Gokarna; Devbagh–Karwar; Tannirbhavi–Mangaluru.

Q80. Assertion (A): Raichur, Ballari and Vijayanagara regions are known for cotton cultivation.

Reason (R): Canal irrigation from Tungabhadra project is dominant in this region.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for the assertion.
(3) Reason is correct but assertion is not correct
(4) Both assertion and reason are not correct

Answer: (2)

Explanation: The regions are important cotton-producing areas, and Tungabhadra canal irrigation is significant, but irrigation alone does not explain cotton cultivation; soil and agro-climatic conditions are also important. (Paripaata)

Q92. Yettinahole Integrated Drinking Water Supply Project is a flagship project of ______.

(1) Cauvery Neeravari Nigama Ltd.
(2) Karnataka Neeravari Nigam Ltd.
(3) Krishna Bhagya Jala Nigam Ltd.
(4) Visvesvaraya Jala Nigam Ltd.

Answer: (4) Visvesvaraya Jala Nigam Ltd.

Explanation: The project was transferred to Visvesvaraya Jala Nigam Ltd. (VJNL) for implementation. (Comptroller and Auditor General of India)

Q93. The Central Soil and Water Conservation Research and Training Institute was established in 1954 at

(1) Bellary
(2) Chamarajanagar
(3) Udupi
(4) Mandya

Answer: (1) Bellary

Q94. Arrange the following districts of Karnataka from smallest to largest in terms of geographical area in 2021.

(1) Ramanagara, Kodagu, Bengaluru Rural, Tumakuru, Belagavi
(2) Kodagu, Bengaluru Rural, Ramanagara, Tumakuru, Belagavi
(3) Ramanagara, Bengaluru Rural, Kodagu, Tumakuru, Belagavi
(4) Bengaluru Rural, Ramanagara, Kodagu, Tumakuru, Belagavi

Answer: (1)

Explanation: The sequence follows increasing geographical area: Ramanagara → Kodagu → Bengaluru Rural → Tumakuru → Belagavi.

Q95. Which of the following Statements are not correct related to Belagavi revenue division of Karnataka?

i. It consists of 7 districts
ii. It is also known as Kittur, Karnataka
iii. It has the smallest district of Karnataka in terms of geographical area (in sq kms)

Choose the correct answer:

(1) Statements i and ii are not correct
(2) Only Statement ii is not correct
(3) Only Statement iii is not correct
(4) Statements ii and iii are not correct

Answer: (4)

Explanation: The division consists of seven districts, but statements about it being synonymous with Kittur Karnataka and containing Karnataka's smallest district are not correct.

7. GENERAL SCIENCE — PHYSICS

Q6. Name the Electromagnetic radiation used in MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) scanning.

(1) Ultraviolet rays
(2) Radio waves
(3) Microwaves
(4) Gamma radiation

Answer: (2) Radio waves

Explanation: MRI uses a strong magnetic field and radio-frequency waves to obtain signals from hydrogen nuclei.

Q19. Two inflated balloons are charged by rubbing them with woollen cloth. If the balloons are brought nearer, then

(1) they attract each other as their charges are alike
(2) they attract each other as their charges are unlike
(3) they repel each other as their charges are alike
(4) they repel each other as their charges are unlike

Answer: (3)

Explanation: Both balloons acquire similar charges when rubbed with the same material. Like charges repel. (Testbook)

Q20. Match the devices present in List A with their applications given in List B.

a) Spring balance
b) Ammeter
c) Electroscope
d) Seismograph

i. used to detect charge
ii. used to measure power of an earthquake
iii. used to measure electric current
iv. used to measure force

(1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii

Answer: (2)

Explanation: Spring balance → force; Ammeter → current; Electroscope → charge; Seismograph → earthquake vibrations.

Q38. When a gun is fired, gun exerts a force on the bullet and the bullet exerts a force on the gun.

Statement A: Force on the bullet is equal and opposite to force on the gun.
Statement B: Total momentum of the bullet and the gun is conserved.
Statement C: Total kinetic energy of the bullet and the gun is conserved.

(1) Statement A and Statement B
(2) Statement B and Statement C
(3) Statement A and Statement C
(4) Only Statement C

Answer: (1) Statement A and Statement B

Explanation: Newton's third law gives equal and opposite forces. Momentum is conserved in the isolated system, but kinetic energy is not necessarily conserved because energy is converted into heat, sound and other forms.

Q47. Consider the following phenomena:

a) Twinkling of Stars — Atmospheric refraction
b) Rainbow — Dispersion and total internal reflection
c) Blue colour of sky — Scattering of light

How many are correctly matched?

(1) Only one
(2) Only two
(3) All three
(4) None

Answer: (3) All three

8. CHEMISTRY

Q2. Which one of the following chemicals cannot be stored in a glass vessel?

(1) Hydrochloric acid
(2) Sulphuric acid
(3) Hydrofluoric acid
(4) Tartaric acid

Answer: (3) Hydrofluoric acid

Explanation: HF reacts with silica (SiO₂), a major component of glass, and therefore cannot safely be stored in ordinary glass vessels. (Paripaata)

Q3. Consider the following fertilizers:

a) Urea
b) Ammonium nitrate
c) Triple Super phosphate
d) Potassium sulphate

Which of the above fertilizers are nitrogenous fertilizers?

(1) a and c only
(2) a and b only
(3) a, b and c only
(4) b, c and d only

Answer: (2) a and b only

Explanation: Urea and ammonium nitrate are nitrogen fertilizers. Triple super phosphate is phosphatic and potassium sulphate is potassic.

Q5. Which of the following pairs of glass and their uses is/are correctly matched?

a) Flint glass: making lenses of camera
b) Crooke's glass: making lenses of goggles
c) Soda-lime glass: making reagent bottles

(1) b only
(2) b and c only
(3) a, b and c
(4) a and c only

Answer: (3) a, b and c

Explanation: All three pairs are treated as correctly matched in the paper. (Testbook)

9. BIOLOGY

Q4. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Hormones are molecules that act as intercellular messengers.
Statement-II: Hormones are produced by endocrine glands in the body.

Based on the above statements, choose the correct answer.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

Answer: (1)

Explanation: Hormones act as chemical messengers and are secreted by endocrine glands into the bloodstream.

Q18. A baby suffering from severe anemia and jaundice due to incompatibility of Rh. factor. When does such condition occur?

(1) 'A' blood group woman marries 'B' blood group man
(2) Rh +ve blood group woman marries a Rh -ve blood group man
(3) Rh -ve blood group woman marries a Rh +ve blood group man
(4) 'O' blood group man marries 'O' blood group woman

Answer: (3)

Explanation: Rh incompatibility can occur when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus, potentially causing hemolytic disease of the newborn. (Testbook)

Q21. With reference to human heart, consider the following parts of heart and their functions:

a) Right Atrium — Receives impure blood from body parts
b) Left Atrium — Receives pure blood from body parts
c) Right Ventricle — Receives impure blood from left atrium
d) Left Ventricle — Receives pure blood from right atrium

How many of the above pair/pairs are correctly matched?

(1) Only one
(2) Only two
(3) Only three
(4) All four

Answer: (1) Only one

Explanation: Only the right atrium pairing is correct. Left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs; right ventricle receives blood from right atrium; left ventricle receives blood from left atrium.

Q50. The hormone very much essential for stimulation of secretion and release of milk from the mammary glands after child birth is

(1) Melatonin
(2) Oxytocin
(3) Vasopressin
(4) Prolactin

Answer: (4) Prolactin

Explanation: Prolactin primarily stimulates milk production. Oxytocin is important for milk ejection/let-down.

10. ECONOMY & FINANCE

Q21. The three categories of loans under MUDRA scheme are

(1) Shishu, Uttam
(2) Suvid, Uttam, Kishor
(3) Shishu, Kishor, Tarun
(4) Uttam, Tarun, Suvid

Answer: (3) Shishu, Kishor, Tarun

Explanation: MUDRA categorises loans as Shishu, Kishor and Tarun according to the stage/size of the business.

Q22. Match the following:

Organisation — Headquarters

a) BIMSTEC — i. Manila
b) IMF — ii. Dhaka
c) Asian Development Bank — iii. Washington D.C.
d) WHO — iv. Geneva

(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

Answer: (1)

Explanation: BIMSTEC–Dhaka; IMF–Washington D.C.; ADB–Manila; WHO–Geneva.

Q23. India's first Payment Bank is

(1) Fino Payments Bank
(2) Airtel Payments Bank
(3) Paytm Payments Bank
(4) Jio Payments Bank

Answer: (2) Airtel Payments Bank

Explanation: Airtel Payments Bank was the first payments bank in India to commence operations.

Q64. Recently Angel Tax was abolished to boost India's startups by Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman, the Finance Minister of India. What was the rate of Angel Tax when it was abolished?

(1) 28.9%
(2) 25.9%
(3) 20.9%
(4) 30.9%

Answer: (4) 30.9%

Explanation: Angel Tax was effectively charged at 30.9%, including applicable components, before its abolition was announced in Budget 2024. (The Indian Express)

Q72. Fullform of DIPAM is _________

(1) Department of Investment and Public Asset Management
(2) Department of Innovation and Public Access Management
(3) Department of Investment and Public Area Management
(4) Department of Innovation and Policy Access Management

Answer: (1)

Explanation: DIPAM = Department of Investment and Public Asset Management, under the Ministry of Finance.

11. INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

Q40. Match the following International Organisations and Headquarters:

a) African Union (AU) — i. Brussels
b) Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) — ii. Addis Ababa
c) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) — iii. Geneva
d) World Trade Organisation (WTO) — iv. Jakarta

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

Answer: (2)

Explanation:

  • AU → Addis Ababa

  • ASEAN → Jakarta

  • NATO → Brussels

  • WTO → Geneva

Q41. Which are the member-countries of Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD)?

a) India
b) Japan
c) USA
d) Australia

(1) a and c only
(2) a and b only
(3) a, b and c only
(4) a, b, c and d

Answer: (4)

Explanation: QUAD consists of India, Japan, United States and Australia.

Q42. Which of the following pair/pairs of Secretary Generals of UNO and their nations is/are correctly matched?

a) Trygve Lie — Norway
b) U Thant — Myanmar
c) Javier Pérez de Cuéllar — Portugal
d) Antonio Guterres — Peru

(1) a only
(2) a and b only
(3) a and c only
(4) a, b, c and d

Answer: (2) a and b only

Explanation: Trygve Lie was Norwegian and U Thant was Burmese/Myanmarese. Pérez de Cuéllar was Peruvian and António Guterres is Portuguese.

12. CURRENT AFFAIRS — 2023–2024

Q52. Who got the Nobel Prize in 2023 for developing effective mRNA vaccine for COVID-19 in the field of medicine and physiology?

(1) Karikó and Weissman
(2) H. G. Khorana
(3) Watson and Crick
(4) Geoffrey E. Hinton

Answer: (1) Karikó and Weissman

Explanation: Katalin Karikó and Drew Weissman received the 2023 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for discoveries concerning mRNA technology.

Q56. Who among the following carried Indian flag during the closing ceremony of Paris Olympics-2024?

(1) Manu Bhaker & P.R. Sreejesh
(2) Neeraj Chopra & P.R. Sreejesh
(3) Manu Bhaker & Vinesh Phogat
(4) Swapnil Kusale & Aman Sehrawat

Answer: (1) Manu Bhaker & P.R. Sreejesh

Explanation: Manu Bhaker and P.R. Sreejesh were India's flag-bearers at the Paris Olympics 2024 closing ceremony. (Testbook)

Q57. Which of the following party has the highest number of MPs in the 18th Lok Sabha?

(1) NDA
(2) INDIA
(3) BJP
(4) TDP

Answer: (3) BJP

Explanation: BJP was the single party with the highest number of MPs in the 18th Lok Sabha.

Q58. Consider the following statements with respect to Paralympics – 2024.

a) Paralympics games were held in Paris, the capital of France.
b) Paralympics games are held once in 5 years.
c) For the first time Indian sportspersons have secured more medals in Paralympics – 2024.
d) China, Britain and USA respectively are the three countries which have won the highest number of medals.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) a, c and d are correct
(2) b, c and d are correct
(3) a, b and d are correct
(4) a and c are correct

Answer: (1) a, c and d are correct

Explanation: Paris hosted the 2024 Paralympics. Paralympics are held every four years, not five.

Q59. India celebrated its first National Space Day on which day?

(1) August 22, 2024
(2) August 23, 2024
(3) August 25, 2024
(4) August 27, 2024

Answer: (2) August 23, 2024

Explanation: August 23 commemorates the successful Chandrayaan-3 lunar landing in 2023. India observed its first National Space Day on 23 August 2024. (President of India)

Q62. Which of the following Ramsar sites were recently added on the eve of Independence Day 2024?

a) Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary
b) Kazhuveli Bird Sanctuary
c) Sharavathi Kandla Mangrove
d) Tawa Reservoir

(1) Only a and b
(2) Only a, b and c
(3) Only a, b and d
(4) a, b, c and d

Answer: (3) Only a, b and d

Explanation: The three wetlands announced as new Ramsar sites were Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary, Kazhuveli Bird Sanctuary and Tawa Reservoir. (Press Information Bureau)

Q63. Name the collaborative system developed jointly by Airports Authority of India and Indian Space Research Organization to improve the accuracy and reliability of GPS signals.

(1) Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan
(2) Krishi UDAN 2.0
(3) Digi Yatra
(4) GAGAN

Answer: (4) GAGAN

Explanation: GAGAN — GPS Aided GEO Augmented Navigation — is India's satellite-based augmentation system for improved navigation accuracy.

Q65. Anura Kumara Dissanayake, the current President of Sri Lanka, belongs to which of the following political parties?

(1) Janatha Vimukthi Peramuna
(2) United National Party
(3) Ceylon Workers' Congress
(4) Democratic People's Front

Answer: (1) Janatha Vimukthi Peramuna

Explanation: Dissanayake is the leader associated with the Janatha Vimukthi Peramuna (JVP) and the National People's Power political alliance.

Q66. Who among the following is known as the 'Father of the Nation' of Bangladesh?

(1) Sheikh Mujibur Rahman
(2) Mohammed Shahabuddin
(3) Muhammad Yunus
(4) Hussain Muhammad Ershad

Answer: (1) Sheikh Mujibur Rahman

Explanation: Sheikh Mujibur Rahman, popularly known as Bangabandhu, is traditionally referred to as the Father of the Nation of Bangladesh.

Q67. Which of the following Statement/Statements with regard to Dadasaheb Phalke award is/are incorrect?

a) This award was first introduced by Government of India in 1950.
b) The first recipient of Dadasaheb Phalke award is Prithviraj Kapoor.
c) Mithun Chakraborty was honoured with this award during 69th National Film Awards Ceremony.
d) Dr. Rajkumar received this award during 43rd National Film Awards Ceremony.

(1) c and d are incorrect
(2) Only d is incorrect
(3) a, b and c are incorrect
(4) Only c is incorrect

Answer: (3) a, b and c are incorrect

Explanation: The award was instituted in 1969, and the first recipient was Devika Rani, not Prithviraj Kapoor. Mithun Chakraborty received the award later, while Dr. Rajkumar was the recipient associated with the 43rd National Film Awards period.

Q68. Expand HSRP.

(1) High Speed Registration Place
(2) High Security Registration Plate
(3) Heavy Security Registration Place
(4) High Space Registration Plate

Answer: (2) High Security Registration Plate

Explanation: HSRP stands for High Security Registration Plate.

Q69. Who was the Chairman of the High Level Committee constituted by Government of India on 'One-Nation One-Election'?

(1) Amit Shah
(2) Pralhad Joshi
(3) Harish Salve
(4) Ram Nath Kovind

Answer: (4) Ram Nath Kovind

Explanation: Former President Ram Nath Kovind chaired the High-Level Committee on simultaneous elections. (Paripaata)

Q73. KHIR City (Knowledge Healthcare Innovation and Research) is planned to be established at

(1) Mysore
(2) Dharwad
(3) Udupi
(4) Bengaluru

Answer: (4) Bengaluru

Explanation: KHIR City was proposed as a major knowledge, healthcare, innovation and research hub around Bengaluru.

Q96. Who has been appointed as the convenor of the GST rate rationalisation panel in June 2024?

(1) Samrat Choudhary, Deputy Chief Minister of Bihar
(2) Krishna Byre Gowda, Revenue Minister of Karnataka
(3) K.N. Balagopal, Finance Minister of Kerala
(4) Chandrima Bhattacharya, Finance Minister of West Bengal

Answer: (1) Samrat Choudhary

Explanation: Bihar Deputy Chief Minister Samrat Chaudhary was appointed convenor of the reconstituted GST rate-rationalisation Group of Ministers in June 2024. (Business Standard)

13. GOVERNMENT SCHEMES & SOCIAL JUSTICE

Q35. Match the following schemes with their objectives:

a) Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan Yojana
b) Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana
c) National Social Assistance Programme
d) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana

i. One year life insurance scheme offering coverage for death due to any reason
ii. Pension scheme for unorganized workers
iii. One year accidental insurance scheme which provides cover for the death or disability due to accident
iv. Social benefits to the poor households in case of old age, death & maternity

(1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(2) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv

Answer: (3)

Explanation:

  • PM-SYM → pension for unorganised workers

  • PMJJBY → life insurance

  • NSAP → social assistance

  • PMSBY → accident insurance

Q74. Match the following educational schemes with their objectives:

a) National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Scheme
b) Vidyanjali
c) Unnat Bharat Abhiyan
d) Pragati

i. Scholarship for girls in technical education
ii. Connecting higher education institutions with society & villages
iii. Award scholarships to meritorious students from economically weaker sections
iv. Remedial classes and training programmes for students through voluntarism

(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

Answer: (1)

Explanation: NMMSS supports meritorious economically weaker students; Vidyanjali connects schools with volunteers; Unnat Bharat Abhiyan connects higher education institutions with villages; Pragati supports girls in technical education.

14. APPLIED SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

Q52. Who got the Nobel Prize in 2023 for developing effective mRNA vaccine for COVID-19 in the field of medicine and physiology?

(1) Karikó and Weissman
(2) H. G. Khorana
(3) Watson and Crick
(4) Geoffrey E. Hinton

Answer: (1) Karikó and Weissman

Q63. Name the collaborative system developed jointly by Airports Authority of India and Indian Space Research Organization to improve the accuracy and reliability of GPS signals.

(1) Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan
(2) Krishi UDAN 2.0
(3) Digi Yatra
(4) GAGAN

Answer: (4) GAGAN

Q73. KHIR City (Knowledge Healthcare Innovation and Research) is planned to be established at

(1) Mysore
(2) Dharwad
(3) Udupi
(4) Bengaluru

Answer: (4) Bengaluru

15. GENERAL MENTAL ABILITY — QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

Q81. A man spends 1/7 of his salary on food, 1/2 of the remaining on clothings and 1/3 of the remaining on entertainment. He is still left with ₹600. How much does he spend on entertainment?

(1) ₹300
(2) ₹450
(3) ₹600
(4) ₹700

Answer: (1) ₹300

Explanation:

Let salary = S.

After food:

S−S7=6S7S-\frac S7=\frac{6S}{7}

After clothing:

6S7×12=3S7\frac{6S}{7}\times\frac12=\frac{3S}{7}

Entertainment:

13×3S7=S7\frac13\times\frac{3S}{7}=\frac S7

Remaining:

2S7=600\frac{2S}{7}=600

Therefore:

S=2100S=2100

Entertainment = ₹300. (Testbook)

Q82. Ravi is taller than Shyam but shorter than Mohan. Shyam is shorter than Shilpa but taller than Savitha. Ravi is taller than Savitha. Then who are the tallest persons in 2nd and 3rd positions?

(1) Ravi – Shilpa
(2) Shilpa – Shyam
(3) Ravi – Shyam
(4) Ravi – Savitha

Answer: (1) Ravi – Shilpa

Explanation: The intended ordering places Mohan first, followed by Ravi and Shilpa. (Testbook)

Q83. A, B and C are three pipes connected to a tank. A and B together fill the tank in 6 hours, B and C in 10 hours and C and A in 7.5 hours. Then, only A can fill the tank in ________

(1) 8 hours
(2) 10 hours
(3) 12 hours
(4) 9 hours

Answer: (2) 10 hours

Explanation:

A+B=16,B+C=110,C+A=17.5A+B=\frac16,\quad B+C=\frac1{10},\quad C+A=\frac1{7.5}

Solving gives:

A=110A=\frac1{10}

Therefore A alone takes 10 hours. (Testbook)

Q84. What comes in the place of question mark (?) in the following series?

A, E, C, G, E, I, ?

(1) H
(2) E
(3) G
(4) J

Answer: (3) G

Explanation: Two alternating series:

  • A, C, E, G

  • E, G, I

Therefore the next term is G. (Testbook)

Q85. In a competitive examination which has two papers, 75% of the students passed in Paper-I and 40% of the students passed in Paper-II. 30% of the students failed in both the Papers. What is the total number of students who took the examination?

(1) 1000
(2) 900
(3) 1100
(4) 800

Answer: Question is defective / no unique answer

Explanation: From the given percentages:

  • Failed Paper I = 25%

  • Failed Paper II = 60%

  • Failed both = 30%

Thus passed both:

100−(25+60−30)=45%100-(25+60-30)=45\%

But no actual number of students is provided, so the total number cannot be uniquely calculated. The printed question is mathematically incomplete. 

Q86. Count the number of triangles in the figure and choose the correct answer.

(1) 12
(2) 20
(3) 22
(4) 24

Answer: (3) 22

Explanation: Counting the small, medium and larger composite triangles formed by the intersecting diagonals gives 22 triangles.

Q87. Two equilateral triangles of side 2√2 cm joined to form a quadrilateral. The area of the quadrilateral thus formed is equal to

(1) 2√3 sq.cm
(2) 3√3 sq.cm
(3) 4√3 sq.cm
(4) 8 sq.cm

Answer: (3) 4√3 sq.cm

Explanation:

Area of one equilateral triangle:

34(22)2=34(8)=23\frac{\sqrt3}{4}(2\sqrt2)^2 =\frac{\sqrt3}{4}(8) =2\sqrt3

Two triangles:

2(23)=432(2\sqrt3)=4\sqrt3

Q88. If × means ÷, − means ×, ÷ means + and + means −, then

(3−15÷19)×8+627×3−2+16\frac{(3-15\div19)\times8+6}{27\times3-2+16}

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 4

Answer: (3) 1

Explanation:

Replace symbols:

Numerator:

(3×15+19)÷8−6(3\times15+19)\div8-6 =(45+19)÷8−6=64÷8−6=2=(45+19)\div8-6 =64\div8-6 =2

Denominator:

27÷3×2−16=18−16=227\div3\times2-16 =18-16 =2

Therefore:

22=1\frac22=1

Q89. A father is three times as old as his son. Five years ago, he was four times as old as his son. The present age of the son is

(1) 17 years
(2) 15 years
(3) 12 years
(4) 19 years

Answer: (2) 15 years

Explanation:

Let son's age = x.

Father's age = 3x.

Five years ago:

3x−5=4(x−5) --> 3x−5=4x−20 --> x=15

Q90. In a class of 45 students, a boy is ranked as 20th. When 3 boys joined, his rank was dropped by three. What is his new rank from the lower end?

(1) 25th
(2) 26th
(3) 24th
(4) 27th

Answer: (2) 26th

Explanation:

New rank from top:

20+3=23

New total:

45+3=48

Rank from bottom:

48−23+1=26

Q91. If a certain sum of money is doubled in 8 years at a given simple interest, then in how many years will it be four times?

(1) 20 years
(2) 22 years
(3) 24 years
(4) 26 years

Answer: (3) 24 years

Explanation: Doubling means interest = principal in 8 years. To become four times, interest must equal 3 times principal, requiring:

8×3=24 years8\times3=24\text{ years}

16. KARNATAKA CURRENT AFFAIRS / DEVELOPMENT

Q92. Yettinahole Integrated Drinking Water Supply Project is a flagship project of ______

(1) Cauvery Neeravari Nigama Ltd.
(2) Karnataka Neeravari Nigam Ltd.
(3) Krishna Bhagya Jala Nigam Ltd.
(4) Visvesvaraya Jala Nigam Ltd.

Answer: (4) Visvesvaraya Jala Nigam Ltd.

Q96. Who has been appointed as the convenor of the GST rate rationalisation panel in June 2024?

(1) Samrat Choudhary, Deputy Chief Minister of Bihar
(2) Krishna Byre Gowda, Revenue Minister of Karnataka
(3) K.N. Balagopal, Finance Minister of Kerala
(4) Chandrima Bhattacharya, Finance Minister of West Bengal

Answer: (1) Samrat Choudhary

17. MIXED / IMPORTANT REMAINING QUESTIONS

Q30. Which of the following animals are found on the Indian National Emblem?

a) Tiger
b) Elephant
c) Lion
d) Bull
e) Horse

Choose the correct answer:

(1) a, b, c, d and e are correct
(2) b, c, d and e are correct
(3) a, b, c and d are correct
(4) a, b, c and e are correct

Answer: (2) b, c, d and e

Explanation: The Lion Capital depicts four lions, with the sculpted abacus showing a horse, bull, elephant and lion separated by Dharma Chakras. The tiger is not part of the emblem.

Q31. Which of the following places were the business centers of Dutch?

(1) Machilipatnam, Diu, Daman, Surat
(2) Surat, Agra, Ahmedabad, Bombay
(3) Pulicat, Pondicherry, Chandranagur, Mahe
(4) Pulicat, Surat, Machilipatnam, Nagapattinam

Answer: (4)

Explanation: Important Dutch trading centres included Pulicat, Surat, Machilipatnam and Nagapattinam.

Q32. Which of the following statements are correct regarding K. Kasturirangan Committee?

a) The Committee was set up in 2022.
b) It was set up to study the status of important ecological areas in the Western Ghats.
c) The Karnataka Government accepted the Kasturirangan Committee report in September 2024.

(1) a, b and c are correct
(2) only c is correct
(3) only b is correct
(4) only a and b are correct

Answer: (3) only b is correct

Explanation: The committee was constituted earlier, not in 2022. The Karnataka government rejected the report's recommendations in September 2024 rather than accepting them. (The Indian Express)

Q33. Match the following:

SitesProofs
a) Harappai. Dockyard
b) Mohenjodaroii. Granaries
c) Kalibanganiii. Gold coins
d) Lothaliv. Fire altars
v. The statue of dancing girl

(1) a-i, b-iii, c-v, d-ii
(2) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
(3) a-ii, b-v, c-iv, d-i
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

Answer: (3)

Explanation: Harappa–granaries; Mohenjodaro–Dancing Girl; Kalibangan–fire altars; Lothal–dockyard.

Q36. Identify the correct sequence of the dynasties who ruled Magadha.

(1) Haryanka – Maurya – Shishunaga – Nanda – Shunga
(2) Haryanka – Shishunaga – Nanda – Maurya – Shunga
(3) Shishunaga – Nanda – Maurya – Shunga – Haryanka
(4) Shunga – Haryanka – Maurya – Shishunaga – Nanda

Answer: (2)

Q48. The Karnataka State Pollution Control Board for Prevention and Control of Water Pollution was constituted by the Government of Karnataka in pursuance of which Act?

(1) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
(2) Environment Protection Act, 1986
(3) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977
(4) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981

Answer: (1)

Q53. With reference to the Carnatic wars, consider the following:

a) First Carnatic War: Treaty of Paris
b) Second Carnatic War: Treaty of Pondicherry
c) Third Carnatic War: Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle

How many are correctly matched?

(1) Only one
(2) Only two
(3) All three
(4) None

Answer: (1) Only one

Q60. Which of the following animals are found on the Indian National Emblem?

a) Tiger
b) Elephant
c) Lion
d) Bull
e) Horse

(1) a, b, c, d and e are correct
(2) b, c, d and e are correct
(3) a, b, c and d are correct
(4) a, b, c and e are correct

Answer: (2)

Important Answer Key — Q1–100

QAnsQAnsQAnsQAns
1126351—763
23272521772
32281531781
41292541792
5330255Defective802
62314561811
72323573821
81333581832
94341592843
10235360285Defective
111362613863
122371623873
132381634883
142392644892
152402651902
163413661913
173422673924
183434682931
193442694941
202452703954
211464713961
222473721972
233481734981
242492741992
2545047531001

..

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