KAS Prelims 2024 – Paper 1 Re-exam, 29-12-2024 Topic-wise Solved Questions

KAS Prelims 2024 – Paper 1 (Re-exam, 29-12-2024, Set A)

Topic-wise Questions Table

Topic	No. of questions	Question numbers
Physical Geography and Geomorphology	7	1, 6, 51, 52, 53, 99, 100
World and Indian Geography	8	4, 7, 8, 13, 50, 54, 62, 65
Karnataka Geography and Environment	4	2, 3, 5, 72
Ancient and Medieval History, Art and Culture	9	11, 17, 22, 66, 73, 74, 75, 76, 86
Modern History and Freedom Movement	6	14, 15, 16, 19, 87, 88
Karnataka and Maratha History	3	18, 20, 21
Indian Polity and Constitution	14	25, 28, 29, 30, 31, 32, 39, 58, 59, 60, 78, 89, 90, 93
Indian Economy, Public Finance and Banking	18	35, 36, 37, 38, 40, 41, 42, 46, 61, 68, 81, 91, 92, 94, 95, 96, 97, 98
International Relations and Current Affairs	15	9, 10, 12, 24, 26, 33, 34, 43, 47, 48, 49, 64, 70, 79, 80
Sports	2	45, 57
Science and Technology	6	23, 55, 56, 63, 71, 77
Government Schemes, Karnataka Schemes and Current Programmes	8	27, 44, 67, 69, 82, 83, 84, 85
Total	100

Economy (18), Current Affairs (15) and Polity (14) together account for 47 of the 100 questions. Some questions fit more than one topic, for example Q68 (SFIO), which I placed under Economy.

Topic-wise Questions, Verified Answers and Explanations

Physical Geography and Geomorphology

Q1. Match the following (Volcanic landform – Description):

Landform	Description
A. Sills	a. Wall-like structure perpendicular to the ground
B. Dykes	b. Thick horizontal deposits
C. Lacolith	c. Dome-like structure covering vast area
D. Batholith	d. Level base connected by a pipe-like conduit from below

• (1) A-b, B-a, C-d, D-c
• (2) A-b, B-c, C-d, D-a
• (3) A-c, B-d, C-a, D-b
• (4) A-a, B-b, C-c, D-d

Correct answer: (1)

Landform	Correct description
Sills	b. Thick horizontal sheets of magma that cool between rock layers
Dykes	a. Wall-like vertical or steeply inclined intrusions cutting across rock layers
Laccolith	d. Dome-shaped mass with a flat base, fed through a pipe-like conduit from below
Batholith	c. Huge dome-like granite mass covering a vast area, the largest intrusive body

Option (2) wrongly pairs Dykes with c and Batholith with a. Option (3) pairs Sills with the dome shape and Dykes with the conduit. Option (4) matches each landform to the wrong description in sequence.

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the atmosphere:

• A. Homosphere consists of Troposphere, Stratosphere and Mesosphere.
• B. Ozone layer is present in Stratosphere.
• C. Mesosphere is the coldest portion of the atmosphere.
• D. Heterosphere consists of Thermosphere and Ionosphere.

Options:

• (1) Only one statement is correct
• (2) Only two statements are correct
• (3) Only three statements are correct
• (4) All of the above statements are correct

Correct answer: (3)

• A is correct. Up to about 80 km the gases are well mixed (uniform composition), so this lower zone is the homosphere and includes the troposphere, stratosphere and mesosphere.
• B is correct. The ozone layer sits mainly at 15–35 km in the stratosphere.
• C is correct. Temperature falls through the mesosphere to roughly −85 °C to −90 °C, the lowest in the atmosphere.
• D is incorrect. The heterosphere (above about 80 km, with layered, unmixed gases) is made of the thermosphere and exosphere. The ionosphere is an electrically charged region overlapping the upper mesosphere, thermosphere and exosphere, not a separate layer of the heterosphere.

So three statements are correct. Options (1) and (2) undercount; option (4) wrongly accepts D.

Q51. Consider the following statements about ocean currents:

• A. Cold currents are usually found on the west coast of the continents in the low and middle latitudes (true in both hemispheres) and on the east coast in the higher latitudes in the Northern Hemisphere.
• B. Coriolis force influences only wind systems and has no role in influencing ocean currents.
• C. Benguela current is a cold current on the west coast of South America.
• D. The mixing of warm and cold currents helps replenish oxygen and favours the growth of plankton, the primary food for fish population.

Options:

• (1) Only one statement is correct
• (2) Only two statements are correct
• (3) Only three statements are correct
• (4) None of the statements are correct

Correct answer: (2)

• A is correct (e.g., Humboldt, Canary, Benguela on west coasts; Labrador and Oyashio on the high-latitude east coasts of the Northern Hemisphere).
• B is incorrect. The Coriolis force deflects currents to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere, which shapes the gyres.
• C is incorrect. The Benguela current flows along the south-western coast of Africa. The cold current on South America’s west coast is the Peru (Humboldt) current.
• D is correct. Mixing brings nutrient-rich water up and supports plankton, which is why such zones (e.g., Grand Banks) are rich fishing grounds.

Only A and D are correct, so option (2).

Q52. Which of the following statements are correct about the Polar Vortex?

• A. The Polar Vortex is a large area of low pressure and cold air over Earth’s North and South Poles.
• B. Polar Vortex is associated with the Jet Stream.
• C. A weak Polar Vortex allows the cold Arctic air to move southward.

Options:

• (1) A and B only
• (2) B and C only
• (3) A and C only
• (4) A, B and C

Correct answer: (4)

A is correct: the vortex is a persistent, large-scale cyclone of cold, low-pressure air over both poles. B is correct: a strong vortex is bounded by a strong polar jet stream that keeps cold air confined. C is correct: when the vortex weakens or splits, the jet stream becomes wavy and Arctic air spills south, causing cold waves in mid-latitudes. All three statements hold, so options (1), (2) and (3) each leave out a correct statement.

Q53. Which option correctly defines the following? “When two hurricanes spinning in the same direction pass close enough to each other, they begin an intense dance around their common center. If one hurricane is a lot stronger than the other, the smaller one will orbit it and eventually come crashing into its vortex to be absorbed…”

• (1) Kessler syndrome
• (2) Fujiwhara Effect
• (3) Medicanes
• (4) El Nino Southern Oscillation (ENSO)

Correct answer: (2)

The Fujiwhara effect is the mutual rotation of two nearby cyclonic vortices around a common centre, which can end in merging or in the smaller storm being absorbed. Kessler syndrome is a chain reaction of collisions among space debris. Medicanes are Mediterranean tropical-like cyclones. ENSO is a periodic warming and cooling of the equatorial Pacific and its linked atmosphere.

Q99. Which of the following features are associated with karst topography? A. Stalactites B. Stalagmites C. Uvalas D. Dolines

• (1) Only one is correct
• (2) Only two are correct
• (3) Only three are correct
• (4) All are correct

Correct answer: (4)

Karst forms in soluble rocks such as limestone. Dolines are small sinkholes, and uvalas are larger depressions formed when several dolines merge. Inside caves, stalactites hang from the roof and stalagmites rise from the floor. All four belong to karst landscapes.

Q100. Which of the following landforms are formed by wind deposition? A. Inselberg B. Zeugen C. Mushroom rock D. Yardangs

• (1) Only two are correct
• (2) Only three are correct
• (3) All the above are correct
• (4) None of the above are correct

Correct answer: (4)

All four are erosional desert landforms. Inselbergs are residual hills. Zeugen are table-like ridges with a hard cap over soft rock, sculpted by abrasion. Mushroom rocks are pedestals undercut by wind-blown sand. Yardangs are streamlined ridges carved along the wind direction. Wind-deposition landforms are different: sand dunes, barchans and loess plains.

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World and Indian Geography

Q4. Which of the following countries share border with Israel? A. Lebanon B. Syria C. Jordan D. Saudi Arabia E. Egypt F. Iran

• (1) All of them
• (2) Only 5 of them
• (3) Only 4 of them
• (4) Only 3 of them

Correct answer: (3)

Israel has land borders with Lebanon (north), Syria (north-east), Jordan (east) and Egypt (south-west), besides the Palestinian territories. Saudi Arabia is separated from Israel by Jordan and the Gulf of Aqaba, and Iran lies much farther east with Iraq and Jordan in between. So four countries share a border.

Q7. Consider the following countries: A. Finland B. Norway C. Armenia D. Kazakhstan E. North Korea. How many of the above countries have a border with Russia?

• (1) Only two countries
• (2) Only three countries
• (3) Only four countries
• (4) All of the above

Correct answer: (3)

Russia borders Finland, Norway, Kazakhstan and North Korea (a short border of about 17 km along the Tumen River). Armenia does not; Georgia and Azerbaijan lie between Armenia and Russia. So four.

Q8. How many of the following pairs are correctly matched?

River	City given	Correct city
A. Tiber	Lisbon	Rome ❌
B. Danube	Vienna	Vienna ✔
C. Tagus	Rome	Lisbon ❌
D. Nile	Cape Town	Cairo (Egypt) ❌

• (1) One pair only
• (2) Two pairs only
• (3) Three pairs only
• (4) All pairs

Correct answer: (1)

Only the Danube–Vienna pair is right. The Tiber flows through Rome, the Tagus through Lisbon, and the Nile through Cairo (Cape Town is not on the Nile).

Q13. How many of the following countries share a territorial land border with Iran? 

A. Turkmenistan B. Turkey C. Syria D. Lebanon E. Afghanistan F. Israel G. Azerbaijan

• (1) Only three
• (2) Only four
• (3) Only five
• (4) Only six

Correct answer: (2)

Iran’s land neighbours are Armenia, Azerbaijan, Turkey, Iraq, Turkmenistan, Afghanistan and Pakistan. From the list, Turkmenistan, Turkey, Afghanistan and Azerbaijan qualify (four). Syria, Lebanon and Israel do not touch Iran.

Q62. ‘Darien Gap’ was in news recently, which is located in: 

A. Panama B. Colombia C. Venezuela D. Ecuador

• (1) A and B
• (2) B and C
• (3) C and D
• (4) D and A

Correct answer: (1)

The Darien Gap is a dense roadless jungle and swamp region linking Panama and Colombia (Central and South America), and is a major migrant route. Venezuela and Ecuador are not part of it.

Q65. Consider the following countries: 

A. Egypt B. Israel C. Jordan D. Saudi Arabia. 

How many of the above countries have a border with Gulf of Aqaba (Aqubah)?

• (1) Only one country
• (2) Only two countries
• (3) Only three countries
• (4) All the four countries

Correct answer: (4)

The Gulf of Aqaba’s coastline is shared by Egypt (Sinai, Taba), Israel (Eilat), Jordan (Aqaba) and Saudi Arabia (north-west coast). All four.

Q54. Match the older names of Andaman and Nicobar Islands with the newer ones.

Old name	New name (options)
I. Ross Island	A. Sri Vijaya Puram
II. Neil Island	B. Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Island
III. Havelock Island	C. Swaraj Island
IV. Port Blair	D. Shaheed Island

• (1) I-D, II-A, III-C, IV-B
• (2) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
• (3) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-C
• (4) I-B, II-D, III-C, IV-A

Correct answer: (4)

Old name	Correct new name
Ross Island	Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Island (B)
Neil Island	Shaheed Island (D)
Havelock Island	Swaraj Island (C)
Port Blair	Sri Vijaya Puram (A), renamed in September 2024

Options (1) to (3) each place at least one name against the wrong island.

Q50. To travel from Karnataka to Mizoram by walking, the minimum number of states you have to pass through would be (excluding the origin and the destination state):

• (1) Three
• (2) Four
• (3) Five
• (4) Six

Correct answer: (2)

Mizoram’s only Indian neighbours are Assam, Tripura and Manipur, and Tripura and Manipur can be reached only through Assam. The only state touching Assam that can be reached from the peninsula is West Bengal, and West Bengal in turn is reached from Odisha. A shortest land route is therefore Karnataka → Andhra Pradesh → Odisha → West Bengal → Assam → Mizoram, passing through four intermediate states.

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Karnataka Geography and Environment

Q2. Which of the following protected areas of Karnataka is having highest area in terms of sq. kms?

• (1) Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary
• (2) Bandipur Tiger Reserve
• (3) Kali Tiger Reserve
• (4) Sharavathi Valley Lion Tailed Macaque Sanctuary

Correct answer: (3)

Kali Tiger Reserve (the Anshi–Dandeli complex in Uttara Kannada) covers more than 1,300 sq km. Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary is about 1,027 sq km, Bandipur about 912 sq km, and Sharavathi Valley LTM Sanctuary about 431 sq km.

Q3. Which of the following waterbodies of Karnataka are included in the Ramsar sites recently i.e. 2024? 

• A. Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve 
• B. Ankasamudra Bird Conservation Reserve 
• C. Bonal Bird Conservation Reserve 
• D. Kokkarebellur Community Reserve 
• E. Aghanasini Estuary

• (1) A, B and C only
• (2) A, B and D only
• (3) A, B and E only
• (4) C, D and E only

Correct answer: (3)

On the eve of World Wetlands Day 2024 (31 Jan–1 Feb), India added five Ramsar sites, three of them in Karnataka: Ankasamudra Bird Conservation Reserve (Vijayanagara), Aghanashini Estuary (Uttara Kannada) and Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve (Gadag). Bonal and Kokkarebellur were not part of the 2024 additions, so options (1), (2) and (4) are wrong.

Q5. Consider the following statements:

• A. Moyar river flows in borders of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
• B. Palar is a tributary of Cauvery.
• C. Karanja is a tributary of Manjira and Manjira is a tributary of Godavari River.
• D. Uttara Pinakini is an interstate river flowing between Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. It originates in Nandi Durga Hill.

Options:

• (1) All of the statements are correct
• (2) Only three statements are correct
• (3) Only two statements are correct
• (4) Only one statement is correct

Correct answer: (1) ⚠ Moderate confidence

• A is correct: the Moyar flows through the Karnataka–Tamil Nadu border area (Bandipur–Mudumalai) and joins the Bhavani, a Cauvery tributary.
• B is correct: a separate Palar (Kaveri basin) forms part of the Karnataka–Tamil Nadu border and joins the Cauvery. Do not confuse it with the larger Palar that rises near Nandi Hills and drains to the Bay of Bengal; the question refers to the Cauvery’s Palar.
• C is correct: the Karanja joins the Manjira, and the Manjira joins the Godavari.
• D is correct: the Uttara Pinakini (North Pennar) rises in the Nandi Durga hills (Chikkaballapur) and flows through Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh to the Bay of Bengal.

The ambiguity is only about which Palar B refers to, since the better-known Palar is not a Cauvery tributary. If the setter had that river in mind, the answer would be (2).

Q72. Consider the following statement/statements:

• A. The actual area irrigated by the tanks in Karnataka have shown a consistently increasing trend since 1991.
• B. Irrigated area in the Karnataka state constitutes only 2.5% of the net sown area.

Options: (1) A only (2) B only (3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B

Correct answer: (4)

A is incorrect: tank irrigation in Karnataka has declined since the early 1990s because of siltation, encroachment, poor maintenance and the shift to borewells and canals. B is incorrect: the net irrigated area in Karnataka is roughly a third of the net sown area, far above 2.5%. Neither statement holds.

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Ancient and Medieval History, Art and Culture

Q22. To which sect Ajanta’s most of the paintings belong?

• (1) Mahayana sect of Buddhism
• (2) Hinayana sect of Buddhism
• (3) Vajrayana sect of Buddhism
• (4) Hinayana and Vajrayana sects of Buddhism

Correct answer: (1)

Ajanta has two phases. The early Satavahana-period caves (about 2nd century BCE to 1st century CE) are Hinayana (Theravada) and show the Buddha only through symbols. The later Vakataka-period caves (5th–6th century CE) are Mahayana and carry the bulk of the paintings, with the Buddha and bodhisattvas shown in human form (Jataka scenes, Padmapani, Vajrapani). Vajrayana is not associated with Ajanta, so options (2), (3) and (4) are wrong.

Q73. The Town Administrations during the period of Satavahanas was in the hands of?

• (1) Nigama Sabha
• (2) Agama Sabha
• (3) Samithi
• (4) Vidhatha

Correct answer: (1)

Under the Satavahanas, towns were managed by the Nigama Sabha, a council of merchants and guild representatives. Samiti and Vidatha are early Vedic assemblies; “Agama Sabha” is not a Satavahana institution.

Q74. During the period of Cholas, the landlords established local community associations for agricultural activities. The name of the association is:

• (1) Alumganam
• (2) Nanadesi
• (3) Cittirameli
• (4) Ainnurruvar

Correct answer: (3)

Cittirameli (Chitrameli Periyanadu) was the association of cultivating landholders (agriculturists) in the Chola country. Alumganam was a governing group within the village assembly, Nanadesi was a merchant guild trading across regions, and Ainnurruvar (Ayyavole 500) was a powerful trading guild.

Q75. In which Buddhist Council were the two groups Buddhist i.e. the Mahayana and Hinayana recognized?

• (1) First Buddhist Council
• (2) Second Buddhist Council
• (3) Third Buddhist Council
• (4) Fourth Buddhist Council

Correct answer: (4)

The Fourth Council, held under Kanishka at Kundalavana (Kashmir) and presided over by Vasumitra, saw the formal split of Buddhism into Mahayana and Hinayana. The First Council (Rajagriha) compiled the teachings, the Second (Vaishali) dealt with the Vinaya dispute and the first split, and the Third (Pataliputra, Ashoka) was aimed at purifying the Sangha.

Q76. Consider the following statements regarding Ashoka’s inscription:

1. The rock edict 3 refers to officers going on tour every five years to instruct people in dhamma.
2. Rummindei inscription mentions that the village of Lumbini will get Tax concession.
3. Rock edict 11 refers to the gift of dhamma being the best of all gifts.

Options: (1) 1 and 2 only (2) 2 and 3 only (3) 1 and 3 only (4) All of the above

Correct answer: (4)

Rock Edict 3 directs the Yuktas, Rajukas and Pradeshikas to go on tour every five years to teach dhamma. The Rummindei (Lumbini) pillar inscription records that the village was exempted from bali and paid only one-eighth as land tax, in honour of the Buddha’s birthplace. Rock Edict 11 says there is no gift like the gift of dhamma (dhamma-dana). All three are right.

Q17. Consider the following statements with reference to Mina Bazar:

1. Humayun was the first Mughal emperor to introduce it.
2. Akbar exalted such days of festival as Kuhs Ruz.
3. Shahjahan arranged such bazar on the occasion of every festival.
4. It invariably followed the Nauroz celebration.

Options: (1) 1 and 2 only (2) 1, 2 and 3 only (3) 2, 3 and 4 only (4) All of the above

Correct answer: (4) ⚠ Moderate confidence

Mina (Meena) Bazaars were women-only fairs held during the Nauroz season; Humayun is credited as the first to organise them, Akbar and later emperors made them grander, and the day was called Kuhs Ruz (Khushroz, the “day of joy”). 

Statements 1, 2 and 4 are well supported. Statement 3 (Shah Jahan holding them on every festival) is the only one I could not confirm independently, but it is consistent with the description of the practice continuing under his reign. If the examiner treats 3 as incorrect, the answer would change, so treat this as the least certain item in the section.

Q11. Which of the following languages are conferred classical language status by Union Cabinet? A. Pali B. Prakrit C. Marathi D. Maithili E. Gujarati

• (1) A, B and C only
• (2) A, B, C and D only
• (3) A, B, D and E only
• (4) All of the above

Correct answer: (1)

In October 2024 the Union Cabinet granted classical status to Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese and Bengali, taking the total to eleven. Maithili and Gujarati do not have the status.

Q86. Consider the following statements:

• A. Moidams – the Mound-Burial System of the Ahom Dynasty is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• B. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• C. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodh Gaya is yet to be declared as UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Options: (1) A and B only (2) B and C only (3) A and C only (4) A, B and C

Correct answer: (1)

The Moidams of Charaideo (Assam) were inscribed in July 2024 and the Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas (Belur, Halebidu, Somanathapura) in September 2023. The Mahabodhi Temple Complex was inscribed back in 2002, so C is false.

Q66. Which of the Indian cities are included in UNESCO Creative Cities Network? 

A. Gwalior – music B. Kozhikode – literature C. Chennai – music D. Varanasi – literature

• (1) Only A and C are correct
• (2) Only A and B are correct
• (3) Only C and D are correct
• (4) Only B and D are correct

Correct answer: none of the options is fully correct ⚠ Flawed question

Gwalior (music, 2023), Kozhikode (literature, 2023) and Chennai (music, 2017) are all correctly matched, so A, B and C are correct. Varanasi is a Creative City of Music (2015), not literature, so D is wrong. No option lists A, B and C together. Options (1) and (2) each contain only correct statements but are incomplete; options (3) and (4) contain D. This question is likely to be challenged or dropped; if you must attempt it, (1) and (2) are the only defensible choices.

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Modern History and Freedom Movement

Q14. Consider the following statements related to Madam Bhikaji Cama:

• A. She is known as the ‘Mother of Indian Revolution’.
• B. In 1907, she addressed the delegates at International Women’s Congress and unfolded the Indian Tricolour Flag with Vande Mataram written on the middle.
• C. She founded the ‘London Indian Society’, in 1905.

How many statements are correct? (1) Only 1 (2) Only 2 (3) Only 3 (4) None

Correct answer: (1)

• A is correct; she is called the “Mother of the Indian Revolution”.
• B is incorrect. In 1907 she unfurled the flag at the Second International Socialist Congress at Stuttgart, Germany, not an International Women’s Congress.
• C is incorrect. In 1905 she co-founded the Paris Indian Society (with S. R. Rana and Munchershah Burjorji Godrej). The London Indian Society is a different body associated with Dadabhai Naoroji.

Q15. With reference to Indian History, Morley-Minto reforms 1909 resulted in:

• A. Reforms promoted establishment of self-government in future.
• B. It increased the number of seats to provincial and imperial council.
• C. Introduced separate electorate.
• D. One Indian in Viceroy’s executive council was appointed.

How many statements are correct? (1) Only 1 (2) Only 2 (3) Only 3 (4) All 4

Correct answer: (3)

A is incorrect: Morley himself said the reforms were not a step toward parliamentary self-government. B is correct (council sizes were enlarged). C is correct (separate electorates for Muslims). D is correct (Satyendra Prasanno Sinha became the first Indian member of the Viceroy’s Executive Council as Law Member). So three are correct.

Q16. Select the incorrect statement about Lahore Resolution.

• (1) It was adopted by the All-India Muslim League in March 1940.
• (2) Resolution stated that the areas in which the Muslims are numerically in a majority as in the North Western and Eastern Zones of (British) India should be grouped to constitute ‘Independent States’.
• (3) The resolution does not include the word ‘Pakistan’ anywhere.
• (4) None of the statements are incorrect.

Correct answer: (4)

The resolution was moved by A. K. Fazlul Huq and adopted at Lahore on 22–24 March 1940. It spoke of grouping the Muslim-majority north-western and eastern zones into “Independent States” with autonomous and sovereign units, and the word “Pakistan” does not appear in the text (the press labelled it the “Pakistan Resolution”). All three statements are correct, so none is incorrect.

Q19. Consider the following statements about Indian Statutory Commission:

• A. The Commission was appointed in 1927 to review the Government of India Act 1919 and propose constitutional reforms for India.
• B. The Commission included only one Indian member, which sparked widespread protests across the country.
• C. The outcome of the Commission and Round Table Conference was the Government of India Act 1935.
• D. Government of India Act 1935 introduced dyarchy in the provinces.

Which of the statements are incorrect? (1) A, B and D only (2) C and D only (3) A and C only (4) B and D only

Correct answer: (4)

A is correct (the Simon Commission, 1927). B is incorrect: the Commission had no Indian member (seven British MPs), which is why it was boycotted with “Simon Go Back” slogans. C is correct. D is incorrect: the 1935 Act abolished provincial dyarchy and introduced provincial autonomy, proposing dyarchy at the Centre (never implemented). Dyarchy in the provinces came from the 1919 Act. So B and D are incorrect.

Q87. Consider the following statements about Rajaram Mohan Roy:

• A. He wrote Tuhfat-ul-Muwahhidin in Persian.
• B. He upheld monotheism of Veda.
• C. He founded Servants of Indian Society.
• D. He supported the cause of freedom, liberty, democracy and nationalism.

Options: (1) A, B and C only (2) A, B and D only (3) B and C only (4) D only

Correct answer: (2)

Ram Mohan Roy wrote Tuhfat-ul-Muwahhidin (“A Gift to Monotheists”) in Persian, argued that the Vedas and Upanishads teach one God, and championed liberty, press freedom and representative ideas. The Servants of India Society was founded by Gopal Krishna Gokhale in 1905, so C is wrong.

Q88. Who amongst the following women revolutionaries at the age of 15 years, along with her associate, shot Comilla District Magistrate Stevens to death? She also joined Jugantar Party. In 1939 she was released… She authored a book titled Arun Bahni.

• (1) Bina Das
• (2) Suniti Choudhury
• (3) Shanti Ghosh
• (4) Pritilata Waddedar

Correct answer: (3)

Shanti Ghosh and Suniti Choudhury shot Stevens, the Magistrate of Comilla, in December 1931. Shanti Ghosh was released in 1939 under the amnesty, later joined the Congress and then the Communist movement, and wrote the autobiography Arun Bahni. Bina Das attempted to shoot the Bengal Governor in 1932, and Pritilata Waddedar led the 1932 attack on the Pahartali European Club.

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Karnataka and Maratha History

Q18. Which of the following statements are correct in relation to Shivaji?

• 1. Dadaji Kondadev was the guardian of Shivaji.

• 2. Shivaji conquered Javli in 1656.

• 3. Shivaji conquered Javli from Maloji Bhosale.

• 4. Shivaji was the only son of Shahaji.

Options: (1) 1 and 2 only (2) 1, 3 and 4 only (3) 2, 3 and 4 only (4) 3 and 4 only

Correct answer: (1)

Dadaji Kondadev was appointed by Shahaji to manage Shivaji’s jagir at Pune and train him, so 1 is correct. Shivaji took Javli in 1656 from the Maratha chief Chandrarao More, so 2 is correct and 3 is wrong (Maloji was Shivaji’s grandfather). Shivaji had an elder brother, Sambhaji, and a half-brother, Ekoji (Venkoji), so 4 is wrong.

Q20. The National Movement in the princely state of Mysore has been divided under the following periods in a book called “The Political Economy of Indirect Rule, Mysore 1881-1971”: i. Mobilization without organization (1885–1920) ii. Elite Mobilization (1920–1937) iii. Mass Mobilization (1937–1947). Who was the author of the Book?

• (1) W.A. Russel
• (2) Bjorn Hettne
• (3) Mohibbul Hassan
• (4) Bipin Chandra

Correct answer: (2)

The book is by the Swedish scholar Björn Hettne (published 1978; its title is usually given as Mysore 1881–1947). Mohibbul Hasan wrote on Tipu Sultan, and Bipin Chandra on the Indian national movement and economic nationalism.

Q21. “Nagar revolt was due to the faulty system of renting out large tracts of land to the highest bidder, a practice which led to the great oppression and discontent.” The above statement reflects on the nature of Nagar Revolt of 1830-31. To whom this statement belongs?

• (1) C. Hayavadan Rao
• (2) Lord Bowring
• (3) Sreenivasa Murthy & T. Ramakrishnan
• (4) Mark Cubbon

Best answer: (1) ⚠ Low confidence, attribution not found online

The content itself is accurate: the revolt arose from the shurtee (contract or bidding) revenue system, in which contractors bid for the right to collect land revenue, leading to illegal exactions and distress. I could not locate this exact line in an online source, so the attribution is unverified. C. Hayavadana Rao, author of the Mysore Gazetteer and a history of Mysore, is the most likely source of such a statement; Bowring and Cubbon were British commissioners, and the Murthy–Ramakrishnan work is a general textbook. Check this against your own notes before relying on it.

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Indian Polity and Constitution

Q25. Which of the following statement/statements are correct about Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) and Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT)?

• A. EVMs were used for the first time in 1982.
• B. EVM and VVPAT do not require any external power supply.
• C. The EVM can not be used in simultaneous elections.
• D. VVPAT was introduced by the ECI in compliance to the pronouncement of the Supreme Court in Lily Thomas case (2013).

Options: (1) A and C only (2) B and D only (3) A and B only (4) C and D only

Correct answer: (3)

• A is correct: EVMs were first used in the 1982 by-election at Parur (North Paravur), Kerala.
• B is correct: both units run on batteries and need no mains supply.
• C is incorrect: EVMs are routinely used when Lok Sabha and Assembly polls are held together (separate machines or sets are used for each election).
• D is incorrect: VVPAT was brought in after the Supreme Court’s 2013 judgment in Subramanian Swamy v. Election Commission of India. The Lily Thomas case (2013) is about disqualification of convicted legislators.

Q28. Consider the following statements:

• A. The Lok Sabha cannot override the Rajya Sabha by passing the bill for the second time and vice versa.
• B. The Legislative Assembly can override the Legislative Council by passing the bill for the second time and not vice versa.
• C. The Constitution provides the mechanism of joint sitting of two houses of the Parliament to resolve a deadlock between them over the passage of a bill.
• D. The Constitution does not provide the mechanism of joint sitting of two houses of the Parliament to resolve a deadlock between them over the passage of a bill.

Options: (1) A and D only (2) B and C only (3) A, B and C only (4) B and D only

Correct answer: (3)

A is correct: in Parliament neither House can simply overrule the other by repassing a bill; the deadlock is resolved by a joint sitting. B is correct (Article 197): the Assembly can pass an ordinary bill a second time and the Council can only delay it, and the Council has no such power over the Assembly. C is correct (Article 108 provides the joint sitting, presided over by the Lok Sabha Speaker). D contradicts C, so it is incorrect.

Q29. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

• A. Legislative Council is a permanent house.
• B. Legislative Assembly is dissolved after the term of 5 years from the date of its first meeting.
• C. Legislative Assembly is dissolved when the ruling party loses the majority.

Options: (1) A and B only (2) C only (3) B and C only (4) A, B, C

Correct answer: (1)

A is correct: the Council is not subject to dissolution; one-third of its members retire every second year. B is correct (Article 172): the five-year term runs from the date of the Assembly’s first meeting. C is incorrect: losing the majority only brings down the government; the Assembly continues unless the Governor dissolves it on the advice of the Chief Minister, or President’s Rule follows.

Q30. A bill lapses when:

• A. It is pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by Lok Sabha.
• B. It is originated and passed by Rajya Sabha but pending in Lok Sabha.
• C. It is originated in the Lok Sabha but pending in the Lok Sabha.
• D. It is originated and passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in Rajya Sabha.

Options: (1) A only (2) A, C and D only (3) B, C and D only (4) A, B, C and D only

Correct answer: (3)

On the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, every bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses (C), including a bill passed by the Rajya Sabha and pending in the Lok Sabha (B), and a bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha (D). A bill that is only pending in the Rajya Sabha and has not been passed by the Lok Sabha (A) does not lapse, because the Rajya Sabha is a continuing house.

Q31. Consider the following statements:

• A. The power of Judicial Review in India is enjoyed by the Supreme Court as well as the High Court.
• B. Any person aggrieved by a ruling can file a Review Petition within 30 days of the court verdict.
• C. Review Petitions are heard in open court as the lawyers make their arguments through either oral arguments or written submissions.

Options: (1) A and B only (2) C only (3) B and C only (4) A, B and C only

Correct answer: (1)

A is correct (Articles 13, 32, 226 and 227). B is correct: the Supreme Court Rules prescribe 30 days for a review petition. C is incorrect: review petitions are ordinarily decided by circulation in the judges’ chambers without oral arguments. Open-court hearing is allowed only in special cases (for example, death-sentence cases, following the 2014 Mohd. Arif ruling).

Q32. Consider the following statements:

• A. ‘Prorogation’ postpones a joint sitting of the house by an order made by the Governor.
• B. ‘Adjournment’ terminates both the sitting and session of the house.
• C. ‘Recess’ is the time between the prorogation and reassembly of the houses.
• D. The Governor can also prorogue the house in session.

Options: (1) A and B only (2) A and C only (3) B and C only (4) C and D only

Correct answer: (4)

A is incorrect: prorogation ends a session (by order of the Governor for a State Legislature); it does not postpone a joint sitting. B is incorrect: adjournment ends only a sitting, not the session. C is correct: the recess is the period between prorogation and the next session. D is correct: the Governor (like the President for Parliament) may prorogue the House even while it is in session.

Q39. Consider the 3 lists that come under the Constitution of India and the related subjects given in List-I and List-II respectively. How many of the given pairs are correctly matched?

List-I	List-II (as given)
A. Union list	Economic and social planning
B. State list	Inter-state trade and commerce
C. Concurrent list	Audit of the accounts of the Union and of the states

• (1) Only one
• (2) Only two
• (3) Only three
• (4) None of the above

Correct answer: (4)

Subject	Actual list
Economic and social planning	Concurrent List (Entry 20)
Inter-state trade and commerce	Union List (Entry 42)
Audit of the accounts of the Union and of the states	Union List (Entry 76)

Each of the three pairs is mismatched, so none is correct.

Q58. Recently the Supreme Court upheld the 1955 Citizenship Act provisions:

• I. It upheld section 6A of 1955 Citizenship Act.
• II. The Supreme Court in its decision upheld citizenship of people who arrived to Assam prior to 1st January 1966 from Bangladesh.
• III. The section 6A of 1955 Citizenship Act provides an opportunity to become an Indian who arrived to West Bengal prior to 1st January 1966 from Nepal.
• IV. All of the above

Options: (1) I only (2) II only (3) I and II only (4) IV only

Correct answer: (3)

In October 2024 a five-judge Constitution Bench upheld Section 6A by a 4:1 majority. Section 6A is an Assam-specific provision (from the Assam Accord): persons of Indian origin who came from the “specified territory” (erstwhile East Pakistan/Bangladesh) before 1 January 1966 are deemed citizens, while those arriving between 1 January 1966 and 25 March 1971 can register and gain citizenship after ten years. It has nothing to do with West Bengal or Nepal, so III and IV are wrong.

Q59. The impeachment process of President of India:

• I. The charge shall be preferred by either House of Parliament.
• II. Article 61 of the Constitution deals with the impeachment process.
• III. The resolution shall be passed by a majority of not less than 2/3 (two-thirds) of the total membership of the House.
• IV. The nominated members of the Parliament don’t have the right to participate in the impeachment process.

Options: (1) I only (2) II only (3) I, II and III only (4) IV only

Correct answer: (3)

Article 61 allows either House to prefer the charge, on a resolution moved after 14 days’ notice signed by at least one-fourth of its members, and passed by two-thirds of the total membership of that House. The other House then investigates, and must also pass a similar two-thirds resolution. Statement IV is wrong: nominated members of both Houses do take part in impeachment (they are excluded only from the presidential election).

Q60. Which of the following provisions are correct regarding Sixth Schedule of the Constitution?

• I. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution provides for the administration of tribal areas.
• II. Sixth Schedule empowers the state to constitute District and Regional Councils by empowering them to make laws on various areas.
• III. Under 49th Constitutional Amendment, all the provisions of Sixth Schedule are applicable to Tripura Tribal area.
• IV. All of the above

Options: (1) I only (2) I and II only (3) I, II and III only (4) I, II, III and IV

Correct answer: (4) ⚠ Moderate confidence (poorly worded question)

The Sixth Schedule (Article 244(2)) governs tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram through Autonomous District Councils and Regional Councils, set up by the Governor/State and given law-making powers on land, forests, village administration and similar subjects (I and II). The 49th Amendment (1984) brought the Tripura Tribal Areas under the Sixth Schedule (III). Since I, II and III are correct, “All of the above” (IV) is correct and option (4) follows. The wording of II (“empowers the state”) is loose, and some may read the answer as (3), but (4) is the logical result.

Q78. How many of the following statement/statements is/are correct about Bharat Ratna award?

• A. The recommendations for Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister himself to the President.
• B. The number of annual awards is restricted to a maximum of three in a particular year.
• C. Both Nelson Mandela and Mother Teresa are recipients of Bharat Ratna award.
• D. Only a person with Padma awards can receive the Bharat Ratna.

Options: (1) Only one (2) Only two (3) Only three (4) All four

Correct answer: (3)

A is correct (the Prime Minister recommends to the President; no formal nominations). B is correct (maximum three in a year). C is correct (Mother Teresa, 1980; Nelson Mandela, 1990, a foreign recipient). D is incorrect: holding a Padma award is not a prerequisite, and several recipients received it with no earlier Padma honour. So three are correct.

Q89. Which of the following is not related to Article 164 (1A)?

• I. It was inserted into the constitution through 91st Constitutional Amendment Act.
• II. According to this Article, the strength of the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total members of Lok Sabha/State Legislature excluding Prime Minister/Chief Minister.

Options: (1) I only (2) Both I and II (3) II only (4) None of the above

Correct answer: (3)

I is related: the 91st Amendment (2003) inserted Article 164(1A). II is not an accurate description of it: Article 164(1A) applies to State Councils of Ministers (the Union analogue is Article 75(1A)), and the 15% ceiling applies to the total Council of Ministers including the Chief Minister, not excluding. So II is the statement that is not related, giving option (3).

Q90. Which of the following Articles directs the State to introduce the Scheme and Plans to minimize inequalities in income and to endeavor to eliminate inequalities in status and opportunities not only amongst individuals but also amongst groups of people?

• I. 38(1)
• II. 38(2)
• III. Both 38(1) and 38(2)
• IV. 39

Options: (1) I only (2) II only (3) I, II and III only (4) IV only

Correct answer: (2)

Article 38(1) asks the State to promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order based on justice. Article 38(2), added by the 44th Amendment, directs the State to minimise inequalities in income and eliminate inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities, not only among individuals but also among groups. Article 39 lists specific policy principles (adequate livelihood, equal pay, distribution of resources, and so on).

Q93. Which of the following is correct regarding the ‘Pocket Veto Power of the President of India’ in comparison to American President?

• I. Unlike American President, the President of India can keep the pending bill for an indefinite period.
• II. Unlike American President the President of India neither rejects the bill nor returns the bill for reconsideration.
• III. Unlike the American Constitution, the Constitution of India does not give any time limit to the President upon the bill.
• IV. Unlike the American President who has to resend the bill within 10 days, Indian President has no such time bound.

Options: (1) I and IV only (2) II and III only (3) I, II and IV only (4) I, II, III and IV

Correct answer: (4) ⚠ Moderate confidence

Under Article 111 the President has no time limit to give assent, withhold assent or return a bill, so in practice the President can sit on a bill indefinitely (the pocket veto), which is I, III and IV. Under the US Constitution the President must act within ten days (Sundays excepted), or the bill becomes law without signature unless Congress has adjourned. II describes the Indian pocket veto (neither rejecting nor returning), in contrast to the US President who can sign or veto and return the bill. All four are consistent with standard treatment, but II is loosely worded, so some examiners may prefer (3).

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Indian Economy, Public Finance and Banking

Q35. Consider the following statements in relation to criteria used in horizontal tax devolution by the Finance Commissions (FC) of India.

• A. Tax efforts was introduced during the Tenth Finance Commission.
• B. The overall weightage given to need-based parameters in the 15th Finance Commission was less than that of the 14th Finance Commission.
• C. Forest cover comes under fiscal disability principle.
• D. Over the years, there has been a shift from need-based parameters to equity and efficiency based parameters.

Options: (1) A and B only (2) A, C and D only (3) B and C only (4) A, B and C only

Correct answer: (2) ⚠ Moderate confidence

• A is correct: the tax-effort criterion was used by the 10th, 11th and 12th Finance Commissions, dropped by the 13th and 14th, and revived by the 15th.
• B is incorrect: adding the need-type criteria (population 1971 and 2011, area, and forest), the 15th FC gave about 55% (15 + 15 + 15 + 10) against about 50% (17.5 + 10 + 15 + 7.5) for the 14th FC, so it was higher, not lower.
• C is correct: forest cover/ecology is meant to compensate states for the fiscal disability caused by large areas under dense forest that cannot be used for revenue.
• D is correct as a commonly stated trend: early commissions used population and poverty mainly, while later ones added equity (income distance) and efficiency or performance criteria (tax effort, demographic performance, fiscal discipline).

Only option (2) matches A, C and D.

Q36. Consider the following statements related to the effects of deficit financing:

• A. Deficit financing, decreases real wage rate in the economy.
• B. It causes current account surplus.
• C. It leads to appreciation of domestic currency.
• D. It creates deflationary situation in the economy.

Options: (1) A only (2) B and C only (3) A, C and D only (4) B, C and D only

Correct answer: (1)

Deficit financing (financing a deficit by creating money) raises demand and prices, so it is inflationary and erodes real wages (A is correct). Higher domestic prices and imports tend to worsen the current account (B wrong) and weaken the currency (C wrong). D is wrong because the effect is inflationary, not deflationary.

Q37. Consider the different types of goods and related examples given in List-I and List-II respectively. How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

List-I (type of good)	List-II (example as given)	Correct?
A. Pure public goods	Street light, public sanitation	Correct
B. Mixed goods (Quasi public)	Food, clothing, automobiles	Wrong (these are private goods)
C. Pure private goods	Elementary education, primary healthcare	Wrong (these are merit goods)
D. Merit goods	Toll road, parks (private parks)	Wrong (these are club or toll goods)

• (1) Only one
• (2) Only two
• (3) Only three
• (4) None of the above

Correct answer: (1)

Only pair A is right: street lighting and public sanitation are non-excludable and non-rivalrous. Food, clothing and automobiles are pure private goods, not mixed goods. Elementary education and primary healthcare are merit goods. Toll roads and private parks are club goods (excludable but not fully rivalrous), not merit goods. So only one pair is correctly matched.

Q38. Consider the following statements:

• A. During the period from 2016-17 to 2023-24, India’s agricultural product exports reached its peak in the year 2022-23.
• B. India has established 13 Agri-cells in foreign countries to promote export of its agricultural products.
• C. Uttar Pradesh, Punjab & Maharashtra are the leading agricultural states in India.
• D. Five products such as basmati rice, non basmati rice, sugar, spices and oil meal account for more than 50 percent of India’s total agriculture exports.

Options: (1) Only one (2) Only two (3) Only three (4) All four

Correct answer: (2) ⚠ Moderate confidence

• A is correct: farm exports were about US$ 50.2 bn in 2021-22, US$ 53.1 bn in 2022-23 (the peak) and US$ 48.8 bn in 2023-24 (Commerce Ministry reply in Parliament).
• B is correct: the Commerce Ministry has set up 13 Agri-cells in Indian embassies (Vietnam, USA, Bangladesh, Nepal, UAE, Iran, Saudi Arabia, Malaysia, Indonesia, Singapore, China, Japan and Argentina).
• C is not supported: the leading agricultural states by output are not usually listed as this trio, and I found no official source for it.
• D is not supported: rice (both types), sugar, spices and oil meal together amount to roughly 45% of agri exports, below 50%; marine products and buffalo meat are also large items.

So only A and B hold. C and D are the less certain judgments.

Q40. Consider the following statements:

• A. The coexistence of budget deficit and trade deficit is the problem of Twin deficit.
• B. The coexistence of fiscal deficit and current account deficit is the problem of Twin deficit.
• C. The coexistence of revenue deficit and primary deficit is the problem of Twin deficit.

Options: (1) A and B only (2) B and C only (3) B only (4) A only

Correct answer: (3) ⚠ Moderate confidence

The “twin deficits” are the fiscal deficit and the current account deficit, so B is the standard definition. A uses “trade deficit”, which is only one component of the current account, so it is not the textbook wording. C is wrong because revenue deficit and primary deficit are both fiscal measures and not a twin-deficit pair.

Q41. Consider the following (markets) related to Indian money markets: A. Repurchase auctions. B. Treasury bills market. C. Discount and finance house of India. D. Satellite Dealers. How many of the above is/are considered as money markets?

• (1) A, B and D only
• (2) B, C and D only
• (3) A, B and C only
• (4) All the above

Correct answer: (4) ⚠ Moderate confidence

Repo auctions (RBI’s liquidity operations) and the Treasury bill market are core short-term money market segments. The Discount and Finance House of India (DFHI) was set up in 1988 as a money market intermediary to give liquidity to money market instruments, and Satellite Dealers (a second tier of dealers in government securities and T-bills) are commonly grouped with money market institutions in standard texts. Under that grouping all four count.

Q42. Consider the following statements related to GDP Deflator:

• A. GDP deflator is a measure of rate of inflation in the economy.
• B. It is the ratio of GDP at current prices to GDP at constant prices.
• C. Nominal GDP is equal to real GDP in the base year.
• D. The GDP deflator is used to convert nominal variables into real variables.

Options: (1) A and B only (2) B and C only (3) C and D only (4) All the above

Correct answer: (4)

The deflator is (nominal GDP ÷ real GDP) × 100, which is B. Because it tracks price changes across all goods in GDP, it measures inflation (A). In the base year prices are the same in both series, so nominal and real GDP are equal and the deflator is 100 (C). Dividing nominal values by the deflator gives real values (D). All four are correct.

Q46. Consider the following statement/statements about Minimum Support Price (MSP):

• A. Government fixes Minimum Support Prices (MSPs) for all the agricultural crops based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP).
• B. While recommending MSP, CACP considers ‘domestic and international prices’ as one of the important factors.
• C. MSP for Toria and de-husked coconut is fixed based on MSPs of rapeseed & mustard and copra, respectively.

Options: (1) A and B only (2) A and C only (3) B and C only (4) A, B and C

Correct answer: (3)

A is incorrect: MSPs are announced for 22 mandated crops (plus a fair and remunerative price for sugarcane), not for all crops. B is correct: CACP weighs cost of production, demand–supply, domestic and international prices, inter-crop price parity and terms of trade. C is correct: the MSPs of toria and de-husked coconut are derived from those of rapeseed-mustard and copra respectively.

Q61. Consider the following statements:

• A. In India in FY23, the insurance penetration of the non-life insurance sector is more than the life insurance sector.
• B. 100% FDI permitted for insurance intermediaries under automatic route.

Options: (1) A only (2) B only (3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B

Correct answer: (2)

In FY23 life insurance penetration was about 3% of GDP while non-life was about 1%, so A is wrong. B is correct: 100% FDI in insurance intermediaries has been allowed under the automatic route since 2019.

Q68. Consider the following statements with reference to Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO):

• A. Establishment under separate Act of the Parliament.
• B. Work under the Ministry of Finance under Government of India.
• C. It investigates the matters on the request of any department of Central Government and State Government.
• D. The headquarter of SFIO is in New Delhi with five regional offices.

Options: (1) Only one is correct (2) Only two are correct (3) Only three are correct (4) All are correct

Correct answer: (2)

A is incorrect: the SFIO was set up in 2003 by a government resolution and was given statutory status under Section 211 of the Companies Act, 2013, not under a separate Act. B is incorrect: it works under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. C is correct: Section 212 lets the Central Government assign cases on a request from any Central or State Government department. D is correct: the headquarters are in New Delhi, with regional offices at Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Ahmedabad and Hyderabad. Hence C and D only.

Q81. Consider the following statements:

• Statement-I: In India’s federal finance system, cess and surcharges are not shared between the central and state governments.
• Statement-II: Articles 270 and 271 of the Indian Constitution exclude cesses levied for specific purposes and surcharges from the divisible pool of taxes.

Options:

• (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
• (2) Both are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
• (3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
• (4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Correct answer: (1)

Article 270 makes shareable central taxes the divisible pool but excludes surcharges (Article 271) and cesses levied for specific purposes. This constitutional exclusion is precisely why the Centre keeps cess and surcharge revenue, so II explains I.

Q91. Consider the following statement/statements about All India Quarterly Establishment based Employment Survey (AQEES):

• A. The AQEES has been taken up by the Labour Bureau.
• B. It provides quarterly estimates about the employment and related variables of establishments in both organized and unorganized segments.

Which of the above statement/statements is/are incorrect? (1) A Only (2) B Only (3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B

Correct answer: (4)

The Labour Bureau (Ministry of Labour and Employment) conducts AQEES. It has two components, a Quarterly Employment Survey for establishments with ten or more workers (organised segment) and an Area Frame Establishment Survey for smaller units (unorganised segment). Both statements are correct, so none is incorrect.

Q92. How many of the following statements is/are incorrect?

• A. The yield of a bond is inversely related to its price.
• B. Liquidity Adjustment Facility is an important monetary policy tool of RBI.
• C. Treasury bills or T-bills are capital market instruments which are long term debt instruments issued by the Government of India.

Options: (1) Only one statement (2) Only two statements (3) Only three statements (4) None of the statements

Correct answer: (1)

A is correct (a higher price means a lower yield). B is correct (LAF, through repo and reverse repo, is RBI’s main day-to-day liquidity tool). C is incorrect: T-bills are short-term (91, 182 and 364 days) money market instruments, not long-term capital market instruments. Only one statement is incorrect.

Q94. Consider the following statements in relation to World Development Report-2024:

• A. The middle-income trap refers to a situation where a country experiences stagnation in growth after reaching middle-income status, hindering its transition to high-income status.
• B. As per the World Bank report, 118 countries were classified as middle-income countries.
• C. India is one among the countries falling into the middle-income trap.
• D. World Bank recommended to adopt 3i strategy like investment, infusion and innovation for low-income countries to achieve high-income status.

Options: (1) A, B and C only (2) A, C and D only (3) A, B and D only (4) All the above

Correct answer: (2)

The World Bank report (July 2024) counts 108 middle-income countries at end-2023, with GDP per capita of about US$ 1,136 to 13,845, so B (118) is wrong. A is the report’s definition. C matches the report’s naming of India, China, Brazil and South Africa among large countries facing the trap. D reflects the 3i strategy: investment first, then infusion of foreign technology, then innovation, which the report presents as a path to high-income status.

Q95. Which of the following statement/statements are correct?

• A. The money market falls directly under the regulatory jurisdiction of RBI.
• B. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the regulatory authority for the capital market.

Options: (1) A only (2) B only (3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B

Correct answer: (3)

RBI regulates the money market (call money, repo, commercial paper, certificates of deposit and T-bills), while SEBI regulates the securities and capital market. Both statements are correct.

Q96. Consider the following statement/statements:

• A. NITI Aayog in collaboration with United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), and Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) developed the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI).
• B. India’s national MPI has 10 indicators while Global MPI has 12 indicators.

Options: (1) A only (2) B only (3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B

Correct answer: (1)

A is correct: NITI Aayog leads the national MPI with technical support from OPHI and UNDP. B is reversed: the global MPI uses 10 indicators, while India’s national MPI uses 12 (it adds maternal health and bank accounts).

Q97. Launched in 2020, the Reskilling Revolution aims to empower one billion people with better education, skills and economic opportunity by 2030. In this context, the Reskilling Revolution is launched by:

• (1) International Labour Organization (ILO)
• (2) World Economic Forum (WEF)
• (3) United Nation Development Programme (UNDP)
• (4) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)

Correct answer: (2)

The Reskilling Revolution is a World Economic Forum platform launched at Davos in January 2020, with the aim of giving one billion people better education, skills and jobs by 2030.

Q98. Consider the following statements:

• A. Revenue deficit is fiscal deficit minus the interest payments.
• B. Fiscal deficit is the difference between the government’s total expenditure and its total receipts excluding borrowing.
• C. When a government spends more than it collects by way of revenue, it incurs a budget surplus.

Options: (1) Only one statement (2) Only two statements (3) Only three statements (4) None of the statements

Correct answer: (1)

A describes the primary deficit (fiscal deficit minus interest payments); revenue deficit is revenue expenditure minus revenue receipts. B is the correct definition of fiscal deficit. C is wrong: spending more than revenue is a deficit, not a surplus. Only B is correct.

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International Relations and Current Affairs

Q9. Which of the following Digital currencies are correctly matched with the country?

Digital currency	Country (as given)	Correct country
A. Sand Dollar	Bahamas	Bahamas ✔
B. e-CNY	Nigeria	China ❌
C. SOV	Marshall Islands	Marshall Islands ✔
D. eNaira	China	Nigeria ❌

• (1) A, B and D
• (2) A and C
• (3) B, C and D
• (4) C and D

Correct answer: (2)

The Sand Dollar is the Bahamas’ central bank digital currency (CBDC), and the SOV is the Marshall Islands’ digital currency. e-CNY is China’s digital yuan, and eNaira is Nigeria’s CBDC, so B and D are swapped.

Q10. UK handed over Chagos Archipelago to which one of the following country recently?

• (1) Seychelles
• (2) Madagascar
• (3) Comoros
• (4) Mauritius

Correct answer: (4)

In October 2024 the UK agreed to transfer sovereignty over the Chagos Archipelago to Mauritius (a treaty followed in 2025), while retaining the Diego Garcia military base on a long lease. This followed the 2019 ICJ advisory opinion and a UN General Assembly resolution supporting Mauritius.

Q12. Which of the following countries are members of ‘NATO Plus’? A. USA B. France C. Israel D. New Zealand E. Australia

• (1) Only two of them
• (2) Only three of them
• (3) Only four of them
• (4) All the above

Correct answer: (4) ⚠ Moderate confidence (depends on how “NATO Plus” is read)

“NATO Plus” is a proposed grouping of NATO members together with five partners: Australia, New Zealand, Japan, South Korea and Israel. The USA and France are NATO members and so belong to the grouping, while Israel, New Zealand and Australia are among the five “plus” partners. All five countries therefore qualify. If the examiner counted only the five partners, the answer would be “only three”, option (2).

Q24. Consider the following statements:

• A. The European Free Trade Association (EFTA) is the intergovernmental organisation of Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland.
• B. India and EFTA have signed a Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA).

Options: (1) A only (2) B only (3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B

Correct answer: (3)

EFTA consists of Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland (A). India and EFTA signed the TEPA on 10 March 2024 (B).

Q26. The Doha process, Istanbul process and Moscow format are related to?

• (1) Peaceful and prosperous Afghanistan
• (2) WTO agreements and declarations that address compulsory licensing
• (3) Ethical use of Artificial Intelligence
• (4) Climate change negotiations

Correct answer: (1)

All three are diplomatic tracks on Afghanistan: the Doha process (US–Taliban talks and later UN-led meetings), the Istanbul process (Heart of Asia regional cooperation) and the Moscow Format (Russia-led consultations). The other options describe the Doha Declaration on TRIPS, AI-ethics frameworks and UNFCCC talks, which are unrelated.

Q33. Consider the following statements:

• A. India attended the 16th BRICS Summit in Kazan, Russia.
• B. Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a multilateral development bank established by BRICS countries.
• C. India has never chaired the BRICS Summit.
• D. USA was incorporated as a new member during the Kazan Summit.

Options: (1) Only one statement is correct (2) Only two (3) Only three (4) None

Correct answer: (1)

A is correct (the Kazan Summit, October 2024). B is wrong: the BRICS bank is the New Development Bank; the ADB was set up in 1966 by Asian and Pacific governments. C is wrong: India chaired BRICS in 2012, 2016 and 2021. D is wrong: the USA is not a BRICS member, and the Kazan Summit admitted partner countries, not the USA.

Q34. Which of the following countries conferred its highest civilian honour ‘GRAND ORDER OF THE CHAIN OF THE YELLOW STAR’ on President of India, Smt. Droupadi Murmu?

• (1) Vietnam
• (2) Australia
• (3) Suriname
• (4) Venezuela

Correct answer: (3)

The Grand Order of the Chain of the Yellow Star is Suriname’s highest civilian honour, awarded to President Murmu during her visit to Suriname. Vietnam, Australia and Venezuela have different national orders.

Q43. Which of the following best describes the Bletchley Declaration?

• (1) A declaration on countering the use of new and emerging technologies for terrorist purposes.
• (2) A declaration focused on limiting the use of nuclear weapons and promoting disarmament among member states.
• (3) A declaration aimed at boosting global efforts to cooperate on artificial intelligence (AI) safety.
• (4) A declaration which reaffirmed that member states of the WTO’s TRIPS Agreement can take measures to protect public health.

Correct answer: (3)

The Bletchley Declaration was signed at the AI Safety Summit at Bletchley Park (UK) in November 2023 by 28 countries including India, plus the EU, to cooperate on the safe development of frontier AI. Option (4) describes the Doha Declaration on TRIPS and public health.

Q47. Which of the following best describes the Blue Helmet?

• (1) Climate refugees as a result of floods and cyclones.
• (2) United Nations military personnel for peacekeeping missions.
• (3) Traditional fishermen using traditional fishing techniques like cast nets and harpoons.
• (4) Manual labour and workers who are paid either by the hour or on a piecework basis.

Correct answer: (2)

“Blue Helmets” is the popular name for UN peacekeepers, who wear blue helmets or berets. Climate refugees, traditional fishermen and casual labourers are not described by this term.

Q48. Consider the following statements:

• A. Cohabitation is a term used in France when the President and Prime Minister come from opposing political camps.
• B. In the history of the Fifth Republic, there has never been a cohabitation in France.

Which of the above statement/statements is/are incorrect? (1) A only (2) B only (3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B

Correct answer: (2)

A is correct. B is incorrect: France has had three cohabitations under the Fifth Republic: Mitterrand–Chirac (1986–88), Mitterrand–Balladur (1993–95) and Chirac–Jospin (1997–2002).

Q49. How many of the following statement/statements is/are correct?

• A. The Golan Heights is a disputed area between Turkey and Syria.
• B. The Abyei border conflict is between Iran and Iraq.
• C. The Nagorno-Karabakh conflict is between Ukraine and Russia.

Options: (1) Only one (2) Only two (3) Only three (4) None of the statements are correct

Correct answer: (4)

The Golan Heights is disputed between Israel and Syria. Abyei is disputed between Sudan and South Sudan. Nagorno-Karabakh is a dispute between Armenia and Azerbaijan. All three statements are wrong.

Q64. Space Variable Objects Monitor (SVOM) satellite developed jointly by:

• (1) China and North Korea
• (2) Russia and Iran
• (3) Israel and USA
• (4) France and China

Correct answer: (4)

SVOM is a Sino-French mission (CNSA, CNES and partners), launched in June 2024 to study gamma-ray bursts, the most violent explosions in the universe.

Q70. 4B (Four Nos) movement was in news recently, originally it was started in which country?

• (1) South Africa
• (2) South Korea
• (3) Canada
• (4) USA

Correct answer: (2)

The 4B movement began in South Korea around 2019: the four “no”s are no dating, no sex, no marriage and no childbirth with men. It drew attention again in late 2024 in the US after the presidential election.

Q79. The “Chip 4” or “Fab 4” alliance includes four of the world’s top producers of semiconductors. Which of the following countries are part of the “Fab 4” alliance? A. United States of America B. Netherlands C. Australia D. Japan E. South Korea F. Taiwan G. India

• (1) A, B, C, E
• (2) B, E, F, G
• (3) C, D, F, G
• (4) A, D, E, F

Correct answer: (4)

The Chip 4 alliance (proposed by the USA in 2022) comprises the United States, Japan, South Korea and Taiwan. The Netherlands, Australia and India are not members.

Q80. Which of the following statements correctly describe the Djibouti Code of Conduct?

• (1) It aims to regulate the import of any hazardous (including radioactive) waste into Africa.
• (2) It promotes responsible sourcing of critical minerals.
• (3) It aims to prevent coups in Africa and ensure people-centered democratic governance.
• (4) It aims for the repression of piracy and armed robbery against ships in the western Indian Ocean and the Gulf of Aden.

Correct answer: (4)

The Djibouti Code of Conduct (2009, adopted under the IMO) is a regional agreement among Western Indian Ocean and Gulf of Aden states to suppress piracy and armed robbery against ships. Option (1) describes the Bamako Convention, and options (2) and (3) are unrelated.

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Sports

Q45. Consider the following statements:

• A. The 2024 Paralympic Games was held in Tokyo, Japan.
• B. India achieved their most successful performance in Paralympic history at the 2024 Paralympic Games, securing a total of 29 medals.
• C. Indian para-athletes participated in three new sports in 2024 - para cricket, para rowing and blind football.
• D. Javelin ace Sumit Antil made history as the first Indian man to defend his title at the Paralympics.

Options: (1) A and B only (2) A and C only (3) B and D only (4) C and D only

Correct answer: (3)

A is wrong: the 2024 Paralympics were held in Paris (Tokyo hosted the 2020 Games). B is correct: India won 29 medals (7 gold, 9 silver, 13 bronze), its best ever. C is wrong: para cricket and blind football are not Paralympic sports, and para rowing is not new. D is correct: Sumit Antil retained his F64 javelin gold.

Q57. Consider the following statements:

• A. India has won a total eight (8) gold medals in the Men Field Hockey Summer Olympics (including the British rule).
• B. India has never won the FIH Hockey World Cup.
• C. The Indian Women Hockey team clinched the Women’s Junior Asia Cup 2023 title for the first time.

How many statement/statements is/are correct? (1) Only one (2) Only two (3) All the statements (4) None

Correct answer: (2)

A is correct: golds in 1928, 1932, 1936, 1948, 1952, 1956, 1964 and 1980. B is wrong: India won the FIH World Cup in 1975 at Kuala Lumpur. C is correct: India beat South Korea in the final in December 2023 to win the Women’s Junior Asia Cup for the first time.

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Science and Technology

Q23. Recently, the Government of India launched Vishvasya. What is it related to?

• (1) It provides holistic and end-to-end support to artisans and craftspeople.
• (2) It aims to reduce the pending income-tax litigations.
• (3) It aims for repatriation of antiquities to India.
• (4) It is a Blockchain Technology Stack.

Correct answer: (4)

Vishvasya is a blockchain technology stack launched by the Government of India (MeitY and NIC) to provide a unified, secure and tamper-proof blockchain infrastructure for e-governance. Option (1) describes PM Vishwakarma, option (2) the Vivad se Vishwas scheme, and option (3) is a heritage-repatriation effort, none of which is Vishvasya.

Q55. Consider the following statements about Gi-Fi (Gigabyte Fidelity) technology:

• A. Gi-Fi is a wired communication technology which uses optical fibers to transmit the data.
• B. Gi-Fi can transfer data for very long distances i.e. 100 kms.

Options: (1) A only (2) B only (3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B

Correct answer: (4)

Gi-Fi (Gigabit Wireless) is a wireless, short-range technology working in the 60 GHz band, giving very high data rates (several Gbps) over only about 10 metres. A is wrong because it is not wired or fibre-based. B is wrong because its range is short, not 100 km.

Q56. The terms Snowblind, Mirai, Stuxnet and Ryuk are associated with:

• (1) Supercomputer
• (2) Malware
• (3) Cryptocurrency
• (4) Drone attack

Correct answer: (2)

Snowblind is an Android banking malware family, Mirai is an IoT botnet malware, Stuxnet is a worm that targeted industrial control systems, and Ryuk is a ransomware family. None is a supercomputer, cryptocurrency or drone.

Q63. How many of the following statement/statements is/are correct about the Small Modular Reactors?

• A. Small modular reactors (SMRs) are advanced nuclear reactors that have a power capacity of up to 300 MW(e) per unit.
• B. SMRs could not be paired with the renewable sources in a hybrid energy system.
• C. In Budget 2024-25, Government of India announced that setting up Bharat Modular Reactors is restricted to the government sector only and no private sector will be allowed.

Options: (1) Only one statement is correct (2) Only two (3) Only three (4) None

Correct answer: (1)

A is correct (IAEA definition: up to 300 MW(e) per unit, factory-built and modular). B is wrong: SMRs can be integrated with renewables in hybrid energy systems, providing firm low-carbon power. C is wrong: Budget 2024-25 said the government would partner with the private sector to set up Bharat Small Reactors, so private participation is welcomed.

Q71. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

• A. The Gaganyaan Programme envisages undertaking human spaceflight to Geostationary orbit at an altitude of approximately 22,300 miles or 35,800 kilometers directly above the equator.
• B. ISRO conducted Drogue Parachute Deployment Tests for Gaganyaan Mission.
• C. SSLV rocket is identified as the launch vehicle for Gaganyaan mission.

Options: (1) A only (2) A and C only (3) B only (4) B and C only

Correct answer: (2)

A is incorrect: Gaganyaan plans crewed flight to low Earth orbit (about 400 km), not geostationary orbit. B is correct: ISRO has tested the drogue parachutes (part of the crew module recovery system). C is incorrect: the launcher is the human-rated LVM3 (HLVM3), not the SSLV, which is a small-satellite launcher. So A and C are incorrect.

Q77. Consider the following statements:

• A. Superposition and Entanglement are key principles of quantum mechanics.
• B. National Quantum Mission (NQM) will establish four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) to promote innovation in quantum computing, communication, sensing, and materials.

Options: (1) A only (2) B only (3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B

Correct answer: (3)

Superposition and entanglement are central ideas of quantum mechanics (A). The National Quantum Mission (2023-24 to 2030-31) sets up four Thematic Hubs, in quantum computing, quantum communication, quantum sensing and metrology, and quantum materials and devices (B).

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Government Schemes, Karnataka Schemes and Current Programmes

Q27. What is the name of the scheme launched to fund infrastructure and social development projects in the North-East region for a period of four years from 2022-2023 to 2025-2026?

• I. PM-NERLP
• II. PM-DRDU
• III. PM-FME
• IV. PM-DevINE

Options: (1) I only (2) II only (3) III only (4) IV only

Correct answer: (4)

PM-DevINE (Prime Minister’s Development Initiative for North East Region) was approved as a central sector scheme to fund infrastructure and social development projects in the North-East for 2022-23 to 2025-26. PM-FME is the micro food processing formalisation scheme; the other two are not the NE infrastructure scheme.

Q44. Match the following One District One Product (ODOP) with the respective districts:

Product	District options
I. Fig based products	A. Bidar
II. Ginger based products	B. Kodagu
III. Turmeric	C. Chamarajanagar
IV. Coffee	D. Bellary

• (1) I-D, II-A, III-C, IV-B
• (2) I-A, II-D, III-C, IV-B
• (3) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D
• (4) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C

Correct answer: (1)

Product	Correct district
Fig	Bellary/Ballari (D)
Ginger	Bidar (A)
Turmeric	Chamarajanagar (C)
Coffee	Kodagu (B)

This matches the ODOP list approved under the PM FME scheme for Karnataka. Options (2) to (4) swap at least one pair.

Q67. Consider the following with reference to PM E-DRIVE: A. e-two-wheeler B. e-ambulance C. e-trucks D. e-buses. Which of the above categories are eligible under the above scheme?

• (1) Only one of the above
• (2) Only two of the above
• (3) Only three of the above
• (4) All of the above

Correct answer: (4)

PM E-DRIVE (PM Electric Drive Revolution in Innovative Vehicle Enhancement, 2024) supports electric two-wheelers, three-wheelers, e-ambulances, e-trucks and e-buses, along with charging infrastructure. All four listed categories are eligible.

Q69. Consider the following places which are having operational Registered Vehicle Scrapping Facility (RVSP) in Karnataka. A. Vijayapura, Bengaluru Rural district B. Koratagere, Tumkur district C. Narasapura, Kolar district D. Mummigatti, Dharwad district

• (1) Only one is correct
• (2) Only two are correct
• (3) Only three are correct
• (4) All are correct

Correct answer: (2) ⚠ Moderate confidence

Karnataka’s first RVSF was approved in September 2023 at Vijayapura (Devanahalli taluk, Bengaluru Rural), run by Mahindra MSTC Recycling. A registered facility at Koratagere (Tumakuru district) is also listed as approved and operational. I could not confirm operational RVSFs at Narasapura (Kolar) or Mummigatti (Dharwad), so the answer rests on two confirmed sites.

Q82. Consider the following statements in relation to ‘Mission Shakti’ scheme:

• A. It is an Umbrella scheme for safety, security and empowerment of women.
• B. Sambal and Samarthya are the 2 sub-schemes of Mission Shakti.
• C. The existing schemes, such as Ujjwala, Swadhar Greh, Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana have been merged under Samarthya scheme.
• D. The existing schemes, including women helpline, Beti Bachao Beti Padhao have been merged under Sambal scheme.

Options: (1) A, B and C only (2) A, B and D only (3) A and B only (4) All the above

Correct answer: (1)

Mission Shakti is an umbrella scheme with two sub-schemes: Sambal (safety and security: One Stop Centres, Women Helpline, Nari Adalat and so on) and Samarthya (empowerment: Ujjwala, Swadhar Greh, working women hostels, PMMVY, Palna, and also Beti Bachao Beti Padhao). So C is correct. D is wrong because Beti Bachao Beti Padhao sits under Samarthya, not Sambal.

Q83. Consider the following statements about Vibrant Villages Programme:

• A. Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP) is a Central Sector Scheme.
• B. It aims for comprehensive development of villages of blocks on the northern border thus improving the quality of life of people living in identified border villages.
• C. Vibrant Village Action Plans will be created by the district administration with the help of Gram Panchayats.

Options: (1) Only one (2) Only two (3) Only three (4) None

Correct answer: (3)

VVP is a Central Sector Scheme (2022-23 to 2025-26) for border villages along the northern border; the action plans are prepared by district administrations with Gram Panchayats. All three statements are correct.

Q84. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

• A. Deakin’s new university campus is located at GIFT City.
• B. IIT Madras established its international campus in Tanzania’s Zanzibar.

Options: (1) A only (2) B only (3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B

Correct answer: (4)

Deakin University (Australia) opened its first foreign campus at GIFT City, Gujarat, and IIT Madras set up its first overseas campus in Zanzibar, Tanzania. Both statements are correct, so neither is incorrect.

Q85. How many of the following Indian government schemes are directly associated with India’s biofuel programme? 

1. A. GOBARdhan yojana 
2. B. PM-JIVAN yojana 
3. C. PM-JANMAN yojana 
4. D. MISHTI scheme 
5. E. SATAT scheme

• (1) Only one
• (2) Only two
• (3) Only three
• (4) Only four

Correct answer: (3)

GOBARdhan (biogas and compressed biogas from waste), PM-JI-VAN Yojana (second-generation ethanol from biomass and agri-waste) and SATAT (compressed biogas supply) are linked to biofuels. PM-JANMAN is a tribal housing and development mission, and MISHTI is the mangrove plantation initiative.

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Items to cross-check against your own notes (lower confidence): Q5, Q17, Q21, Q35, Q38, Q40, Q41, Q60, Q66, Q69, Q93.