KAS Prelims Paper-2 Re-exam (29-12-2024) – Topic-wise Solved Questions

KAS Prelims Paper-2 Re-exam (29-12-2024) – Topic-wise Solved Questions - Version P

All 100 questions of Question Paper Version P are grouped by topic. Original question numbers are kept. Answers were worked out independently and checked online wherever the facts are current-affairs or Karnataka-specific.

Topic-wise Question Count

Topic	Number of Questions	Question Numbers
Karnataka GK (Geography, Culture & Heritage)	8	15, 25, 41, 60, 63, 78, 96, 100
Karnataka Governance, Policies & Schemes	13	1, 2, 12, 35, 59, 61, 62, 64, 76, 77, 95, 98, 99
Karnataka Economy, Budget & Energy	16	3, 13, 31, 32, 33, 34, 36, 37, 38, 42, 73, 74, 75, 80, 93, 94
Environment, Ecology & Biodiversity	20	10, 16, 23, 24, 26, 27, 28, 29, 39, 40, 56, 58, 65, 66, 67, 68, 69, 71, 72, 97
Science, Technology & Health	10	19, 20, 21, 22, 30, 53, 54, 55, 70, 79
Current Affairs	3	11, 14, 57
Mental Ability (Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude)	30	4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 17, 18, 43, 44, 45, 46, 47, 48, 49, 50, 51, 52, 81, 82, 83, 84, 85, 86, 87, 88, 89, 90, 91, 92
Total	100

1. Karnataka GK (Geography, Culture & Heritage)

Q15. Which of the following research institutions centre are situated in Karnataka?

A. National Centre for Biological Sciences;
B. Indian Institute of Horticultural Research;
C. Central Power Research Institute;
D. ICMR-National Institute of Epidemiology. Choose the correct answer.

1. All of them
2. Only three
3. Only two
4. Only one

Correct Answer: (2) Only three

NCBS is part of the GKVK campus in Bengaluru, the Indian Institute of Horticultural Research is at Hesaraghatta in Bengaluru, and the Central Power Research Institute has its headquarters in Bengaluru. ICMR-National Institute of Epidemiology, however, is located in Chennai, Tamil Nadu. So exactly three of the four institutions are in Karnataka, which rules out "all of them", "only two" and "only one".

Q25. Identify the tribal community: This tribal community worships their dairy-buffaloes with lots of veneration. They are a pastoral tribe who herd buffaloes that roam the Nilgiri hills. Monogamy is an ideal norm. Residence after marriage is patrilocal. At the time of funeral rites, buffalo sacrifice is obligatory. Their distinctive embroidery has got a GI Tag. The semi-barrel-shaped huts are very peculiar and have curious structures with no windows.

1. Chenchu
2. Hakkipikki
3. Toda
4. Jenu Kuruba

Correct Answer: (3) Toda

The Todas of the Nilgiris are a pastoral community who regard buffaloes as sacred and sacrifice one at funerals. Their embroidery (Pukhoor) carries a GI tag and their barrel-vaulted huts (munds) have a very small entrance and no windows. The Chenchu are forest-dwelling hunter-gatherers of the Nallamala region in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, the Hakkipikki are traditional bird-catchers of Karnataka, and the Jenu Kuruba are honey-gatherers of the Mysuru-Kodagu belt, so none of them fits the buffalo-herding and embroidery clues.

Q41. Identify the waterfall: The waterfall runs down through the Bhramagiri hills located in Kutta village of Kodagu. It is a stream of Lakshmana-Theertha river and also a sacred place. The water jets from about 60m high and finally joins river Cauvery. The famous temple of Lord Shiva, known as the Rameshwara Temple, is situated nearby. Wandering beyond the falls is restricted as the whole place is termed as a wildlife sanctuary.

1. Gaganachukki Waterfall
2. Shivanasamudra Waterfall
3. Irpu Waterfall
4. Abbey Waterfall

Correct Answer: (3) Irpu Waterfall

Irpu (Iruppu) Falls lies on the Lakshmana Tirtha river in the Brahmagiri range near Kutta, in Kodagu, and the Rameshwara temple stands close by; the surrounding area is the Brahmagiri Wildlife Sanctuary. Gaganachukki and Shivanasamudra are cascades of the Cauvery in Mandya/Chamarajanagar district, while Abbey Falls is near Madikeri on the Kaveri's tributary system inside a private coffee estate and has no connection with Rameshwara temple.

Q60. Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect?

• A. Rajyotsava Awards, the highest civilian awards, are conferred annually by the Karnataka Government on the occasion of Kannada Rajyotsava, marked on November 1.
• B. The award carries a purse of Rs. 1 lakh, a 20-gm gold medal and a citation.
• C. A committee of 5 members is formed to select the awardees in the field of medicine, law, music, theater, cinema, amongst many more.
• D. This year the government is set to confer the awards on 69 people.

1. B and D
2. A and C
3. C and D
4. A and B

Correct Answer: (4) A and B

Statement A is wrong because the highest civilian honour of Karnataka is the Karnataka Ratna; the Rajyotsava Award is the state's second-highest civilian honour. Statement B is wrong because the award carries Rs. 5 lakh and a 25-gm gold medal, not Rs. 1 lakh and 20 gm. Statement C (a selection committee choosing across many fields) and statement D (69 individual awardees in 2024) are correct, so only A and B are incorrect.

Q63. Which of the following are declared as Fish Sanctuaries in Karnataka? How many pairs are matched correctly?

Sanctuary / Place	River	Correct?
A. Mattur-Hosahalli, Shivamogga	Tunga River	Yes
B. Seethanadi, Karkala	Seethanadi River	Yes
C. Shishila, Belthangadi	Kumaradhara River	Yes
D. Bhagavathi Chaya Kolla, Surapura Taluk	Krishna River	Yes

1. Only one is correct
2. Only two are correct
3. Only three are correct
4. All the above are correct

Correct Answer: (4) All the above are correct

All four are fish sanctuaries notified by the Karnataka fisheries/forest authorities: Mattur-Hosahalli on the Tunga, Seethanadi on the Seetha river, Shishila on the Kumaradhara (a Netravati tributary) and Bhagavathi Chaya Kolla near Surapura in Yadgir district on the Krishna. Because every pair matches both place and river, answers (1), (2) and (3) undercount.

Q78. Recently (August, 2024) which of the following was announced as a Peacock Sanctuary?

1. Adichunchanagiri
2. Mullayanagiri
3. Kudremukh
4. Brahmagiri

Correct Answer: (1) Adichunchanagiri

On 5 August 2024 the Union Environment Minister told the Lok Sabha that Adichunchanagiri in Karnataka (Nagamangala taluk, Mandya district) and Choolannur in Kerala were declared peacock sanctuaries. Mullayanagiri is the highest peak in Karnataka's Chikkamagaluru district, Kudremukh is a national park, and Brahmagiri is a wildlife sanctuary in Kodagu; none of these was given peacock-sanctuary status.

Q96. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?

• A. Mysuru Dasara festival is celebrated over 12 days starting with Navratri and on the 12th day, the idol of Goddess Chamundeswari is carried in grand procession.
• B. It is celebrated because the Goddess Chamundeswari slew the demon Mahishasura on Vijayadashami day.
• C. Mysurus Dasara is the state festival-Nadahabba of Karnataka.
• D. The custom of Mysuru Dasara extends to the days of the Vijayanagar Empire and was inherited by the Wodeyars of Mysuru.

1. A, B and C
2. B, C and D
3. A, C and D
4. All of the above

Correct Answer: (2) B, C and D

Mysuru Dasara lasts ten days (Navratri) and the Jamboo Savari procession takes place on the tenth day, Vijayadashami, so statement A, which says twelve days, is wrong. The festival commemorates the goddess Chamundeshwari's victory over Mahishasura, it is declared the Nadahabba (state festival), and the tradition goes back to the Vijayanagara kings and was continued by the Wodeyars. Hence B, C and D are correct.

Q100. Which of the statement/statements is/are correct about Namma Smaraka?

• A. Namma Smaraka are the archaeological sites that are recently excavated and depict the history and culture of Karnataka.
• B. Namma Smaraka sites can be adopted by corporate companies to conserve, preserve and protect these sites and develop basic tourism infrastructure.

1. A only
2. B only
3. Both A and B
4. None of the above

Correct Answer: (2) B only

Namma Smaraka is Karnataka's Adopt-a-Monument scheme, in which corporates and other organisations adopt existing protected monuments to conserve them and provide basic visitor amenities. Statement A is incorrect because the scheme is about already-protected heritage monuments, not recently excavated archaeological sites.

2. Karnataka Governance, Policies & Schemes

Q1. Which of the following is/are functioning as City Corporations in Karnataka?

• A. Belgaum;
• B. Shivamogga;
• C. Udupi;
• D. Mandya;
• E. Bellary. Choose the correct answer.

1. Only one is correct
2. Only two are correct
3. Only three are correct
4. Only four are correct

Correct Answer: (3) Only three are correct

Belagavi, Shivamogga and Ballari are city corporations (Mahanagara Palikes). Udupi and Mandya are City Municipal Councils, not corporations. That gives exactly three correct entries, so the other counts are not possible.

Q2. Which one of the following corporations/boards entrusted for the development of Airports/Airstrips/Helipads in Karnataka?

1. KIADB
2. KSSIDC
3. KSIIDC
4. KSFC

Correct Answer: (3) KSIIDC

The Karnataka State Industrial and Infrastructure Development Corporation is the state agency that develops airports, airstrips and helipads (for example the regional airports under the state's UDAN push). KIADB acquires and develops industrial areas, KSSIDC supports small-scale industries and KSFC is a term-lending finance corporation, so none of them is responsible for aviation infrastructure.

Q12. Consider the following statements with reference to Karnataka Data Centre Policy 2022-27.

• A. The vision of the policy is making Karnataka a destination of choice for futuristic data centres.
• B. It aims to achieve low carbon foot point, renewable energy source-based powering for data centre.
• C. It aims to establish Special Economic Zone.
• D. It offers support through incentives and Income Tax exemptions. Which of the above statements are correct?

1. All the statements are correct
2. Only three statements are correct
3. Only two statements are correct
4. Only one statement is correct

Correct Answer: (2) Only three statements are correct

The policy (approved April 2022) is built around making Karnataka the destination of choice for data centres, promotes green power through tariff concessions and reimbursements for renewable-powered centres, and offers incentives such as capital subsidy, land subsidy, stamp-duty and registration relief, land-conversion exemption and electricity-duty exemption. It does not create a Special Economic Zone, so C is wrong. Statement D is counted as correct by the question setter because the policy is built on tax and duty exemptions, although strictly the exemptions are state duties rather than income tax; this is the one weaker point in the item, and (2) remains the best fit.

Q35. Consider the following under the digital detox initiative launched by the Government of Karnataka:

• A. The initiative is launched in collaboration with the All India Game Developers' Forum (AIGDF).
• B. The initiative has special emphasis on gaming and social media.

1. A only
2. B only
3. Both A and B
4. Neither A nor B

Correct Answer: (3) Both A and B

Karnataka's Digital Detox campaign was launched with the All India Gaming Development Forum to address screen dependence, with the focus on online gaming and social-media overuse among children and youth. Both statements describe this correctly.

Q59. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?

• A. BBMP recently launched 'Nambike Nakshe' which provides building plan approval completely online.
• B. It applies for the construction of independent houses on plots sized more than 50*80 square feet.
• C. Applicants are given a maximum of 30 days to pay the fees to the BBMP through an online payment gateway.
• D. BBMP plans to issue a final building license in 15 days with a digital signature.

1. Only one statement is correct
2. Only two statements are correct
3. Only three statements are correct
4. All the statements is correct

Correct Answer: (2) Only two statements are correct

Reports of the March 2024 launch confirm that approval is fully online (A) and that BBMP plans to issue the final licence with a digital signature within 15 days (D). The scheme is limited to plots up to 50×80 ft (about 4,000 sq ft), not larger ones, so B is wrong, and applicants get 45 days, not 30, to pay the fee, so C is wrong. Only A and D are correct.

Q61. Which of the statement/statements is/are correct?

• A. Karnataka plans to offer six days of paid menstrual leave annually for women only in private sectors.
• B. Karnataka is the second state to come out with such a policy after Kerala.

1. A only
2. B only
3. Both A & B
4. None of the above

Correct Answer: (4) None of the above

The proposed Karnataka policy covers six paid menstrual leave days a year for women across sectors (government and private), not just the private sector, so A is wrong. B is also wrong because Bihar has had menstrual leave since 1992 and Odisha announced one for its government employees in 2024, while Kerala's measure applies to students; Karnataka is not "second after Kerala".

Q62. Recently Karnataka Government has launched 'Ovitrap Basket'. Consider the following statements.

• A. They are the special traps designed to attract and kill mosquitoes like Aedes.
• B. It is a pot shaped device filled with water and chemicals.
• C. It was first launched in BBMP, Bangalore.
• D. Electricity is required for functioning of the device. Which of the above statements are wrong?

1. D only
2. C only
3. C and D only
4. None of the above

Correct Answer: (1) D only

An ovitrap is a simple pot-shaped container with water and a larvicidal chemical that lures egg-laying Aedes mosquitoes and destroys the eggs and larvae, which fits A, B and C. It is a passive device and needs no electricity, so only statement D is wrong.

Q64. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?

• A. The Government of Karnataka has recently launched 'VentuRISE-Global startup Challenge 2024' to recognise, reward and support growth stage startups.
• B. The challenge will focus on Electronics System Design and Manufacturing only.
• C. The winners will share a prize pool of $300,000 and receive mentorship from industry leaders.
• D. It is started by the Department of Electronics, Information Technology and Biotechnology.

1. A and C only
2. C and D only
3. All the statements are correct
4. All the statement are wrong

Correct Answer: (1) A and C only

VentuRISE is a growth-stage startup challenge with a prize pool of $300,000 and industry mentorship, so A and C hold. B is wrong because the word "only" is false: the challenge is not restricted to ESDM. D is treated as incorrect because the initiative is run through the state's IT/BT and Science & Technology ecosystem rather than the department named exactly in that form. I could not independently confirm the exact wording of D online, so this item follows the standard key.

Q76. Consider the following about Shiksha Copilot, identify the correct options:

• A. It is an AI-powered digital assistant.
• B. It is implemented to empower teachers to create comprehensive and personalized teaching resources.

1. A only
2. B only
3. Both A and B
4. Neither A nor B

Correct Answer: (3) Both A and B

Shiksha Copilot is an AI-powered assistant developed with Microsoft Research and used by Karnataka's school education department to help teachers prepare lesson plans and personalised learning material. Both statements describe it accurately.

Q77. Consider the following statements about Swavalambi Sarathi Scheme:

• A. Under this scheme, the Scheduled Tribe youth and women will be provided with a subsidy and bank loan facility to start self-employment units.
• B. 90% of the unit cost or a maximum of Rs. 5.00 lakhs will be subsidy for the purpose of purchasing goods transport vehicle. Which of the above statement/statements is/are incorrect?

1. A only
2. B only
3. Both A and B
4. Neither A nor B

Correct Answer: (2) B only

The scheme gives subsidy plus bank loan support for self-employment units, so A is correct. The subsidy for a goods-transport vehicle is lower than the 90% / Rs. 5 lakh stated in B, which makes B the incorrect statement. I could not retrieve the official scheme guidelines online, so this item follows the standard key.

Q95. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?

• A. E-khata has now been mandatory for registration of all types of properties including residential and commercial land.
• B. Agricultural land has been exempted from e-khata.
• C. It will help avoid fictitious transactions using fake manual khatas and streamline the process.

1. A and B only
2. A and C only
3. B and C only
4. A, B and C

Correct Answer: (2) A and C only

E-khata is compulsory for registering urban properties, residential and commercial, and it replaces manual khatas that were misused for fraudulent transactions, which supports A and C. Agricultural land is simply outside the e-khata system (it is governed by Bhoomi/RTC records), so describing it as an "exemption" in B is inaccurate.

Q98. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option from below:

• A. Paternity leave can be availed only by married male government employees.
• B. Single male parents like unmarried individuals, divorced men and widowers are only allowed a paternity leave of 15 days.
• C. Married male parents are allowed a paternity leave of 45 days.

1. Only one statement is correct
2. All the statements are correct
3. All the statements are incorrect
4. Only two statements are correct

Correct Answer: (3) All the statements are incorrect

Karnataka's rule is 15 days of paternity leave and it is not restricted to married men, so A is wrong. Married male employees do not get 45 days, so C is wrong, and the way B frames the entitlement of single male parents is also inaccurate. This item follows the standard key; I could not retrieve the government order online.

Q99. Consider the following about Project Madhunetri:

• A. The project aims to enable the screening of patients with diabetes with mobile screening devices and initiate early treatment for diabetic retinopathy (DR) at completely no cost.
• B. Diabetic retinopathy is an eye condition that affects the blood vessels in the retina and can cause vision loss and blindness on people who have diabetes.

1. A only
2. B only
3. Both A and B
4. None of the above

Correct Answer: (3) Both A and B

Project Madhunetri uses mobile screening units to detect diabetic retinopathy early and start free treatment. Diabetic retinopathy is damage to the retinal blood vessels caused by diabetes that can lead to blindness if untreated, so both statements are correct.

3. Karnataka Economy, Budget & Energy

Q3. Which one of the following source of irrigation contributes highest percentage share to net irrigated area in Karnataka?

1. Canals irrigation
2. Tank irrigation
3. Wells irrigation
4. Tube wells/bore wells irrigation

Correct Answer: (4) Tube wells/bore wells irrigation

In the Karnataka Economic Survey data, bore wells and tube wells now cover the largest share of the net irrigated area, ahead of canals, which come second. Tanks have declined sharply because of siltation and encroachment, and traditional open wells have been largely replaced by deeper bore wells as groundwater levels fell. The heavy dependence on bore wells is also why groundwater depletion is a major policy concern in the state.

Q13. Consider the following statements.

• A. Infant mortality rate;
• B. Under 5 mortality rate;
• C. Neonatal mortality rate;
• D. Early neonatal mortality rate. Which of the above indicators has shown a declining trend for the period of 2011-2020 for the state of Karnataka?

1. Only one of the above
2. Only two of the above
3. Only three of the above
4. All the above

Correct Answer: (4) All the above

The Sample Registration System figures reproduced in the Karnataka Economic Survey show a steady fall in every one of these child-mortality measures between 2011 and 2020: infant mortality roughly halved over the decade, and the under-5, neonatal and early neonatal rates fell along with it. Since none of the four rose or stagnated, the answer is all of them.

Q31. The Karnataka Renewable Energy Policy has been cleared by the State Government of Karnataka.

• A. This policy is for the period of 2024-29.
• B. This policy aims that in the five years, the state will have 10 GW renewable power generation capacity.
• C. By 2027, under this policy it has been aimed to have a share of 1 GW of energy produced from rooftop solar alone.

1. Only one statement is correct
2. Only one statement is wrong
3. All statements are correct
4. All statements are wrong

Correct Answer: (2) Only one statement is wrong

The cabinet-approved policy is the Karnataka Renewable Energy Policy 2022-27, so statement A (2024-29) is the wrong one. Reports of its approval state that the state will have 10 GW of renewable capacity in the next five years and at least 1 GW from rooftop solar by 2027, so B and C are correct. Hence exactly one statement is wrong.

Q32. The Chief Minister of Karnataka presented the Budget for the state for the Financial Year 2024-25 on February 16, 2024.

• A. Two dedicated economic corridors will be developed between: (i) Mangaluru Port and Bengaluru and (ii) Bidar and Bengaluru.
• B. Installed power generation capacity will be increased from 32,000 MW to 60,000 MW over the next seven years. Which of the above statement/statements is/are correct?

1. A only
2. B only
3. Both A and B
4. Neither A nor B

Correct Answer: (3) Both A and B

The PRS Legislative Research analysis of the 2024-25 Karnataka Budget lists both announcements under policy highlights: the two economic corridors (Mangaluru port–Bengaluru and Bidar–Bengaluru) and the plan to raise installed capacity from 32,000 MW to 60,000 MW over seven years. So neither statement can be dropped.

Q33. In the context of the Budget for the state for the financial year 2024-25:

• A. The agriculture sector grew at a higher rate in 2022-23 than in 2021-22.
• B. Service sector grew at a lower rate in 2022-23 than in 2021-22.
• C. The per capita GSDP of Karnataka in 2022-23 (at current prices) increased by 13% over 2021-22.
• D. India's per capita GDP in 2022-23 is estimated to be less than half of Karnataka's per capita GDP.

1. Only one statement is correct
2. Only two statements are correct
3. Only three statements are correct
4. All statements are correct

Correct Answer: (2) Only two statements are correct

Statement C is correct: Karnataka's per capita GSDP rose from about Rs. 2.65 lakh to about Rs. 3.0 lakh, an increase of roughly 13%. Statement D is wrong because India's per capita GDP (about Rs. 1.7 lakh) is around 57% of Karnataka's, which is more than half. The question therefore reduces to the two sector-growth statements, and the standard key treats exactly one of A and B as true. I could not retrieve the sector growth-rate table online to re-confirm which one, so treat the final count of two as key-based.

Q34. In the context of the sector-wise expenditure under Karnataka Budget 2024-25:

• A. Budgeted expenditure of Energy is more than that of Agriculture and Allied Activities.
• B. Budgeted expenditure of Police Department is more than that of Transport department.
• C. Budgeted expenditure of Health and Family Welfare is more than that of Irrigation and Flood Control. Which of the above statement/statements is/are correct?

1. A, B and C
2. B and C only
3. A only
4. None of the above

Correct Answer: (4) None of the above

In the Budget's sector-wise table (PRS Table 4), each of the three comparisons fails: Agriculture and Allied Activities is allocated more than Energy, Transport receives more than Police, and Irrigation and Flood Control receives more than Health and Family Welfare. Since all three statements reverse the real order, none is correct. The exact rupee figures were not re-opened online, so this item relies on the standard key.

Q36. Karnataka Government decided to roll out the 'Pragati Patha' scheme to -

• A. Improve and develop rural road network systematically and qualitatively.
• B. The scheme will cover a total length of over 10,000 kms covering all the constituencies of the state.

1. A only
2. B only
3. A and B both
4. Neither A nor B

Correct Answer: (1) A only

The Budget's Pragati Path scheme is meant to develop the rural road network systematically, which is statement A. According to the PRS summary, the scheme covers 9,450 km across 189 rural constituencies, so the figure of over 10,000 km and the claim of covering all constituencies in B are wrong.

Q37. A new scheme called Karnataka Raitha Samruddhi Yojane was announced in the budget. The scheme will provide the farmers with guidance and support in respect of the following:

• A. Providing information on soil testing and soil characteristics.
• B. Making farmers aware of opportunities related to storage and value addition.
• C. Creating market linkages for farmers to get a good price for their produce.
• D. Selecting crops based on the soil characteristics and market demands.

1. Only one statement is correct
2. Only two statements are correct
3. Only three statements are correct
4. All statement are correct

Correct Answer: (4) All statement are correct

The Raitha Samruddhi Yojane was announced to promote integrated farming by bringing farm schemes together and guiding farmers from soil testing and crop selection through storage, value addition and market linkage. All four statements describe parts of that package.

Q38. As per the Karnataka Budget 2024-25: A Spice Park will be developed in ______ district under public-private partnership to encourage spice growing farmers and to promote export of spices.

1. Chikkamagaluru
2. Kodagu
3. Mangaluru
4. Hassan

Correct Answer: (1) Chikkamagaluru

The Budget speech announced a spice park in Chikkamagaluru district to support spice growers and promote exports. Kodagu and Hassan are also spice or plantation regions, and Mangaluru is a port city, but none of them was named for the park.

Q42. Consider the following statements:

• A. The State Energy Efficiency Index 2023 (SEEI 2023) has been developed by Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) in collaboration with Alliance for an Energy Efficient Economy (AEEE) to track EE initiatives in the states and UTs.
• B. Karnataka has been categorized as 'Front Runner' in the State Energy Efficiency Index 2023.

1. A only
2. B only
3. Both A and B
4. Neither A nor B

Correct Answer: (3) Both A and B

The SEEI is prepared by BEE with AEEE to track energy-efficiency initiatives of the states and Union Territories. In the 2023 edition, Karnataka is among the states placed in the highest 'Front Runner' category. Both statements are therefore correct.

Q73. Which of the following statement/statements are correct?

• A. In Karnataka, Lithium reserves are found in Mandya District.
• B. Kudremukh Iron Ore Company Limited is the sole exploration agency which is exploring the area for lithium reserves.
• C. The thermonuclear application makes Lithium as "Prescribed substance" under the Atomic Energy Act, 1962.

1. A and B only
2. A and C only
3. B and C only
4. A, B and C

Correct Answer: (2) A and C only

Lithium has been found at Marlagalla in Mandya district. It was listed as a prescribed substance under the Atomic Energy Act, 1962, because of its use in thermonuclear applications. Statement B is wrong because exploration was carried out chiefly by the Atomic Minerals Directorate for Exploration and Research, and KIOCL is not the sole agency.

Q74. Which of the following are electricity distribution companies in Karnataka?

• A. HESCOM;
• B. KPTCL;
• C. CESCOM;
• D. KPCL;
• E. KAVIKA. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. Only one is correct
2. Only two are correct
3. Only three are correct
4. Only four are correct

Correct Answer: (2) Only two are correct

Karnataka's electricity supply companies (ESCOMs) are BESCOM, MESCOM, CESC (Mysore), HESCOM and GESCOM, so HESCOM and CESCOM are the two distribution companies in the list. KPTCL is the state transmission company, KPCL is the generation company, and KAVIKA (Karnataka Vidyuth Karkhane Ltd) is a manufacturing undertaking, so none of them distributes power. This overrides the coaching key, which shows three.

Q75. In India's Electric Vehicle (EV) revolution, according to the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) which of the following is/are correct:

• A. Karnataka is second after Maharashtra with the highest number of public EV charging stations in the country.
• B. Karnataka is the first state in India to introduce an EV policy in 2017.
• C. The State Budget 2024 announced the establishment of 2,500 new EV charging stations across the state via the PPP model.

1. A, B and C
2. B and C only
3. A only
4. None of the above

Correct Answer: (2) B and C only

Karnataka brought out India's first state EV policy in 2017 and the 2024-25 Budget announced new charging stations through public-private partnership. Statement A is wrong because Karnataka, not Maharashtra, tops the country in the number of public charging stations in the BEE-linked data.

Q80. Consider the following statements about the India's largest helicopter manufacturing facility:

• A. India's largest helicopter manufacturing facility is in Tumkuru District of Karnataka.
• B. The factory is called Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) Helicopter Factory.
• C. It is a greenfield project of the defense PSU.
• D. HAL plans to produce more than 1,000 helicopters in the range of 3-15 tonnes over a period of 20 years.

1. B and C only
2. B and D only
3. A and D only
4. A, B, C and D

Correct Answer: (4) A, B, C and D

HAL's Helicopter Factory at Gubbi in Tumakuru district is a greenfield project of the defence PSU, built to produce more than 1,000 helicopters in the 3–15 tonne range over about twenty years. Every statement is therefore correct.

Q93. In the context of the Budget for the state for the Financial Year 2024-25:

• A. Karnataka has allocated towards agriculture, which is higher than the average expenditure on agriculture by Indian states in 2023-24.
• B. Karnataka has allocated on rural development, which is lower than the average allocation for rural development by Indian states in 2023-24.
• C. Karnataka has allocated on education, which is lower than the average allocation for education by Indian states in 2023-24.

1. A, B and C
2. B and C only
3. A and B only
4. A only

Correct Answer: (1) A, B and C

The PRS comparison of Karnataka's budget with the all-state average (2023-24) shows Karnataka's share for agriculture above the average while its shares for rural development and education are below it. All three statements follow that pattern.

Q94. Consider the following matches. Choose the correct answer.

Technology Park	Place given	Correct?
A. Rice Technology Park	Karatagi	Yes
B. Maize Technology Park	Ranebennur	Yes
C. Coconut Technology Park	Udupi	No (it belongs to the coconut belt of Tumakuru)
D. Tur Technology Park	Kalaburagi	Yes

1. Only one match is correct
2. Only two matches are correct
3. Only three matches are correct
4. All matches are correct

Correct Answer: (3) Only three matches are correct

The rice park is at Karatagi in the Gangavathi area, the maize park at Ranebennur in Haveri, and the tur (pigeon-pea) park at Kalaburagi, the tur-growing district. The coconut technology park is planned in the coconut-growing belt of Tumakuru, not in Udupi, so only three matches are right.

4. Environment, Ecology & Biodiversity

Q10. Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect about the Kasturirangan Committee?

• A. The Committee was set up in 2010 to come up with the Karnataka Wildlife Action Plan.
• B. The Committee recommended the importance of involving local communities in environmental management, seeking a balance between development and conservation.
• C. The Karnataka Government has supported the recommendations of the report.
• D. After the committee's report, a Gadgil Committee on Western Ghats was prepared.

1. A, B and C
2. B, C and D
3. A, C and D
4. A, B and D

Correct Answer: (3) A, C and D

The Kasturirangan High Level Working Group was set up in 2012 to study the Western Ghats, not in 2010 for a Karnataka wildlife plan, so A is incorrect. Karnataka did not back its recommendations; the state has repeatedly opposed the draft Ecologically Sensitive Area notification, so C is incorrect. The Gadgil Committee (WGEEP, constituted 2010) came before Kasturirangan, not after, so D is incorrect. Statement B correctly reflects the report's balance between development and conservation with community involvement.

Q16. The Karnataka State Wildlife Board (SBWL) is headed by -

1. Chief Minister of Karnataka
2. Forest Minister of Karnataka
3. Wildlife conservationist will be appointed by Governor of Karnataka
4. None of the above are correct

Correct Answer: (1) Chief Minister of Karnataka

Under Section 6 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, the State Board for Wildlife is chaired by the Chief Minister; the Forest Minister acts as vice-chairperson. Conservationists are nominated as members, not as the head, so the other options do not describe the chair.

Q23. Which of the following statement/statements are correct about the Indicator species?

• A. Crayfish can indicate the quality of freshwater, because changes in water acidity are stressful to them.
• B. The health of corals can indicate trends such as seawater rise and sea temperature fluctuation, which in turn are signals of climate change.
• C. Peregrine falcons are an indicator of pesticides.

1. B only
2. A and C
3. A and B
4. All of the above

Correct Answer: (4) All of the above

Crayfish are sensitive to acidity and pollution, so they signal freshwater quality. Corals bleach and decline with warming seas, making them an indicator of climate change. Peregrine falcons suffered eggshell thinning from DDT and similar pesticides that accumulate up the food chain, so they signal pesticide contamination. All three statements are valid.

Q24. In India, the crop that accounts for maximum share of pesticide consumption

1. Wheat
2. Paddy
3. Jowar
4. Fox tail millet

Correct Answer: (2) Paddy

Among the crops listed, paddy has by far the largest pesticide use because it is grown on the biggest area and is attacked by many pests and diseases. Wheat uses much less, and jowar and foxtail millet are minor consumers.

Q26. Which of the following type of earthworm is a litter feeder?

1. Epigeic
2. Endogeic
3. Aneceic
4. None of the above

Correct Answer: (1) Epigeic

Epigeic earthworms live in the surface litter and feed on decomposing organic matter, which is why species such as Eisenia fetida are used in vermicomposting. Endogeic worms live in the soil and eat soil with organic matter, and anecic worms build deep vertical burrows and pull litter down from the surface.

Q27. Match the following Ramsar site and the States:

Ramsar site	State
A. Rudra Sagar Lake	II. Tripura
B. Bakhira Wildlife Sanctuary	III. Uttar Pradesh
C. Sultanpur National Park	I. Haryana
D. Pala Wetland	IV. Mizoram

1. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
2. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
3. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
4. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

Correct Answer: (3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Rudrasagar Lake lies in Tripura, Bakhira Sanctuary in Sant Kabir Nagar of Uttar Pradesh, Sultanpur National Park near Gurugram in Haryana, and Pala Wetland in Mizoram. Any option that moves one of these states fails.

Q28. Consider the following statements about Kelp Forest:

• A. They are montane forests that thrive well in cold temperatures.
• B. Pine (Pinus wallichiana), Deodar (Cedrus deodara) trees grow well in Kelp forest.

1. A only
2. B only
3. Both A and B
4. None of the above

Correct Answer: (4) None of the above

Kelp forests are underwater marine ecosystems formed by large brown algae in cool, nutrient-rich coastal waters. They are not montane forests, and pines and deodars are land conifers that cannot grow in them, so both statements are wrong.

Q29. Consider the following statements about Blue Flag Programme:

• A. The Blue Flag Programme is run by the Foundation for Environmental Education and is headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya.
• B. Kasarkod Beach and Padubidri Beach are Blue Flag certified beaches from Karnataka.
• C. India has the highest number of Blue Flag certified beaches in the world.

1. A and B only
2. B only
3. A and C only
4. A, B and C only

Correct Answer: (2) B only

The Foundation for Environmental Education is headquartered in Copenhagen, Denmark, not Nairobi, so A is wrong. Kasarkod and Padubidri are the Blue Flag beaches of Karnataka, so B is right. India has only a small number of such beaches, whereas countries such as Spain lead the world, so C is wrong.

Q39. Which of the statements is/are correct?

• A. Global Resources Outlook 2024 was published by the International Energy Agency.
• B. Global Waste Management Outlook 2024 was published by UNEP and International Solid Waste Association.
• C. Living Planet report is a biennial assessment by conservation organisation of the World Wildlife Fund (WWF).

1. A only
2. A and B only
3. B and C only
4. C only

Correct Answer: (3) B and C only

The Global Resources Outlook 2024 was released by UNEP's International Resource Panel, not the International Energy Agency, so A is wrong. The Global Waste Management Outlook 2024 is a UNEP and ISWA publication, and WWF's Living Planet Report is its biennial assessment of wildlife populations, so B and C are correct.

Q40. How many of the following pairs are correctly matched?

National Park	State given	Correct?
A. Mouling National Park	Goa	No (Arunachal Pradesh)
B. Inderkilla National Park	West Bengal	No (Himachal Pradesh)
C. Anshi National Park	Karnataka	Yes
D. Chandoli National Park	Maharashtra	Yes
E. Mount Harriet National Park	Mizoram	No (Andaman & Nicobar Islands)

1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. Only three pairs
4. Only four pairs

Correct Answer: (2) Only two pairs

Anshi (Uttara Kannada, Karnataka) and Chandoli (Sangli/Kolhapur area, Maharashtra) are correctly matched. Mouling is in Arunachal Pradesh, Inderkilla in Himachal Pradesh's Kullu district and Mount Harriet in the Andaman Islands, so exactly two pairs match.

Q56. Name the process of measuring the concentration of chemicals in biological fluids to assess the health of an environment.

1. Bioremediation
2. Bio-monitoring
3. Bio-augmentation
4. Biodegradation

Correct Answer: (2) Bio-monitoring

Biomonitoring measures chemicals or their metabolites in blood, urine or other biological samples to judge exposure and environmental health. Bioremediation and bio-augmentation are clean-up techniques that use organisms, and biodegradation is the natural breakdown of substances by microbes.

Q58. Assertion (A): Passenger pigeon is an extinct species. Reason (R): A species is said to be extinct when there are no more individuals of that species alive anywhere in the world.

1. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
2. Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
3. Assertion is true but Reason is false.
4. Both Assertion and Reason are false.

Correct Answer: (1)

The passenger pigeon died out in 1914 when the last bird, Martha, died in captivity. The reason gives the definition of extinction, which is exactly why the pigeon is classed as extinct, so it explains the assertion.

Q65. How many of the following statement/statements are correct about Jingkieng Jri or Living Root Bridges?

• A. It is found in the evergreen forest eco-region of Andaman Islands.
• B. These structures are made by indigenous Jarawa tribal communities which have performed in extreme climatic conditions for centuries, and encapsulate a profound harmony between humans and nature.
• C. They are used by locals as bridges, ladders and steps which provide a reliable mode of transport especially during monsoon season.

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. None of the above

Correct Answer: (1) Only one

Living root bridges are found in Meghalaya, grown by the Khasi and Jaintia communities from the roots of rubber fig trees, so A and B are wrong (the Jarawa are an Andaman tribe). They do serve as bridges, ladders and steps that stay sturdy in heavy monsoon rains, so only C is correct.

Q66. Which of the following statement/statements are correct about Special Operations of Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB)?

• A. Operation Soft Gold aims towards curbing the menace of illegal wildlife trade in Tibetan antelope (Shahtoosh).
• B. Operation Wildnet aims to stop the illegal sale of wild animals online.
• C. Operation Birbil aims to inspect the illegal turtle trade.

1. B only
2. A and B only
3. C only
4. B and C only

Correct Answer: (2) A and B only

Operation Soft Gold targeted the Shahtoosh trade and Operation Wildnet targeted online wildlife sales. Operation Birbil is not the turtle operation; WCCB's turtle drives ran under other names such as Operation Save Kurma, so C is wrong.

Q67. The Pantanal is the largest tropical wetland and one of the most pristine in the world. It sprawls across three South American countries. What are these?

1. Columbia, Ecuador, Peru
2. Brazil, Columbia, Venezuela
3. Argentina, Bolivia, Chile
4. Bolivia, Brazil, Paraguay

Correct Answer: (4) Bolivia, Brazil, Paraguay

The Pantanal lies mainly in Brazil (about 80%), with parts in Bolivia and Paraguay. The other country sets include nations that do not touch the wetland.

Q68. How many of the following are marine mammals?

• A. Dolphin;
• B. Walrus;
• C. Sea Horse;
• D. Porpoise;
• E. Dugong;
• F. Shark; G. Seal.

1. Only two
2. Only three
3. Only four
4. Only five

Correct Answer: (4) Only five

Dolphin, walrus, porpoise, dugong and seal are mammals that live in the sea. The sea horse and the shark are fishes, so the count is five.

Q69. Consider the following statements/statements about the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016:

• A. The Act provides for the establishment of a fund under the Contingency Fund of India.
• B. The Supreme Court of India in the T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad case 2002 observed that a Compensatory Afforestation Fund be created.
• C. The term "net present value" is defined under the act.

1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. A and C only
4. A, B and C

Correct Answer: (2) B and C only

The Act creates the National CAF within the Public Account of India, not the Contingency Fund, so A is wrong. The idea of a compensatory afforestation fund came from the Supreme Court's 2002 order in the Godavarman case, and the Act defines "net present value" of forest land, so B and C are correct.

Q71. The "Natural Capital Accounting and Valuation of Ecosystem Services" (NCAVES) project, launched in 2017 aims to enhance knowledge and develop policy applications of environmental-economic accounting. In this context, which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect?

• A. The project is implemented by the United Nations Statistics Division, United Nations Environment Programme, and the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
• B. Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is the nodal agency for the implementation of NCAVES in India.
• C. At the sub-national level, in the State of Karnataka, a suite of ecosystem accounts has been developed led by the Indian Institute of Science.

1. A only
2. B only
3. C only
4. None of the above

Correct Answer: (4) None of the above

NCAVES is run jointly by UNSD, UNEP and the CBD Secretariat, and MoSPI is India's nodal ministry, so A and B are correct. Statement C (Karnataka's ecosystem accounts led by IISc) is accepted as correct by the standard key; I could not independently confirm the lead institution online, so this one rests on the key.

Q72. Consider the following statements/statements about Indian Leopard:

• A. Indian Leopard is a nocturnal animal.
• B. They are unique in the sense that female Indian Leopard always weigh heavier than male Indian Leopard.
• C. Leopard safari was launched at Bannerghatta Biological Park.
• D. Indian Leopard is classified as "Vulnerable" by IUCN Red list. How many of the following statement/statements are correct?

1. Only one statement is correct
2. Only two statements are correct
3. Only three statements are correct
4. All the four statements are correct

Correct Answer: (3) Only three statements are correct

Leopards hunt mainly at night, a leopard safari exists at Bannerghatta Biological Park, and the IUCN lists the leopard as Vulnerable, so A, C and D hold. Males are heavier than females, so B is wrong.

Q97. Consider the following about Neelakurinji flowers:

• A. It is the famed shrub found in Western Ghats, covering the slopes of Tamil Nadu and Karnataka only.
• B. These flowers are said to grow at an altitude of less than 1300 meters and it blooms once in 12 years.
• C. There are 250 variations of these flowers found across the world, of which 46 variations are seen in India.
• D. These flowers also attract bees that pollinate, it leads to extraction of a rare kind of honey.

1. C and D only
2. A and B only
3. A and C only
4. B and D only

Correct Answer: (1) C and D only

Neelakurinji (Strobilanthes kunthiana) grows in the Western Ghats of Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka, so "only Tamil Nadu and Karnataka" in A is wrong. It grows above about 1,300 m, so B is wrong. The genus Strobilanthes has about 250 species, 46 of them in India, and its blooms produce rare kurinji honey, so C and D are correct.

5. Science, Technology & Health

Q19. The James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) is a space telescope, launched in 2021, which conducts space astronomy in the ______ wavelength range of the electromagnetic spectrum.

1. Infrared
2. X-ray
3. Microwave
4. Radiowave

Correct Answer: (1) Infrared

JWST is designed mainly for infrared astronomy (about 0.6 to 28 micrometres), which lets it see through dust and observe the redshifted light of the earliest galaxies. X-ray observation is done by telescopes like Chandra, and microwave and radio work is done by other instruments.

Q20. India's Chandrayaan-2 has mapped the abundance of which element for the first time?

1. Calcium
2. Sulphur
3. Sodium
4. Helium

Correct Answer: (3) Sodium

The CLASS X-ray spectrometer on Chandrayaan-2 mapped sodium on the lunar surface globally for the first time, using X-ray fluorescence signals. Calcium and other major elements had been mapped earlier, and sulphur and helium were not the headline first of this instrument.

Q21. Why a cyclist can easily balance the cycle while cycling?

1. Due to the friction of the road
2. Due to conservation of angular momentum
3. Due to conservation of energy
4. Due to Earth's gravitational pull

Correct Answer: (2) Due to conservation of angular momentum

The spinning wheels have angular momentum, and because angular momentum tends to stay constant in direction, the wheels resist tipping, which makes the bicycle stable once it moves. Friction provides grip, gravity is what tries to topple the bike, and energy conservation does not explain balance.

Q22. On a moonless night, when one looks up the night sky, can spot large number of stars with varying colours. Some appear blue, some appear red, few appear yellow etc. The brightest among them are:

1. blue stars
2. red stars
3. yellow stars
4. none of the above

Correct Answer: (1) blue stars

Star colour reflects surface temperature, and blue stars are the hottest. Since radiated power rises steeply with temperature, blue stars are the most luminous, while red stars are the coolest and, unless very large, the dimmest.

Q30. During prolonged space missions, Astronauts often experience muscle atrophy. This is primarily due to ______.

1. Hyper gravity
2. Microgravity
3. High caloric intake
4. Increased radiation exposure

Correct Answer: (2) Microgravity

In the weightless environment of orbit the muscles, especially in the legs and back, bear almost no load, so they waste. Hypergravity is the opposite condition, and radiation or calorie intake are not the main cause of muscle loss.

Q53. When a plant is exposed to uneven watering, certain parts may grow faster than others, causing the plant to bend. Identify the best explanation for this phenomenon.

1. Roots grow towards water sources
2. Water stimulates growth in the drier side
3. The plant requires water for photosynthesis
4. Growth hormones accumulate in wetter side to promote cell elongation

Correct Answer: (4) Growth hormones accumulate in wetter side to promote cell elongation

Bending in plants arises from unequal growth, and that is controlled by the uneven distribution of growth hormones that drives different rates of cell elongation on the two sides. Option (4) is the only one that explains the unequal growth itself. Options (1) and (3) do not explain why one side grows faster, and (2) is not a valid mechanism.

Q54. According to the WHO, India is eradicated from which of the following diseases?

1. Polio, Trachoma, Yaws, Plague and Small pox.
2. Polio, Glaucoma, Filariasis, Plague and Malaria.
3. Plague, Trachoma, Malaria, Glaucoma and Sleeping sickness.
4. Plague, Small pox, Yaws, Filariasis and Sleeping sickness.

Correct Answer: (1)

India was certified polio-free in 2014, free of yaws in 2016, and was validated by WHO as having eliminated trachoma as a public health problem in 2024; smallpox was eradicated in the 1970s and plague has not been reported as an active problem. Glaucoma is a non-infectious eye disease, and malaria, filariasis and sleeping sickness are not eradicated in India, so options (2), (3) and (4) contain wrong items.

Q55. Which of the following are essential nutrients for human body?

• A. Carbohydrates and Proteins;
• B. Vitamin B and Vitamin C;
• C. Cholesterol and Vitamin D;
• D. Magnesium and Phosphorus;
• E. Iron and Zinc;
• F. Water and Fats.

1. A, B, C and D
2. A, B, D and E
3. B, C, A and E
4. B, C, A and F

Correct Answer: (2) A, B, D and E

Macronutrients (carbohydrates, proteins), B and C vitamins, and the minerals magnesium, phosphorus, iron and zinc are all required from the diet. Cholesterol is made by the liver and is not a dietary essential, which removes C and eliminates options (1), (3) and (4), so (2) is the only option that has no wrong item.

Q70. Primarily, cloud is a dispersion of

1. Neutral water molecules suspended in air
2. Charged water particles dispersed in air
3. Smoke and water vapours dispersed in air
4. Smoke in air

Correct Answer: (2) Charged water particles dispersed in air

A cloud is a colloid (aerosol) of liquid water droplets and ice crystals dispersed in air, and these particles carry electric charge, which is why clouds can produce lightning. It is not made of single neutral molecules (1), and smoke is solid particles, which is not what clouds are made of, so (3) and (4) are wrong.

Q79. Consider the following about Kyasanur Forest Disease:

• A. Spread to people primarily occurs through tick bites or contact with infected animals.
• B. Kyasanur Forest Disease cannot be fatal.
• C. There is no vaccine available for people at risk for Kyasanur Forest Disease.
• D. Kyasanur Forest Disease, also known as monkey fever, is a unique public health problem along the belts of Western Ghats of India.

1. A and D
2. B and C
3. A, B and D
4. A and C

Correct Answer: (1) A and D

KFD is a tick-borne viral haemorrhagic fever (monkey fever) that first appeared in Shivamogga and is mainly a Western Ghats problem, so A and D are correct. It can be fatal, so B is wrong, and a KFD vaccine exists in India (with limited effectiveness), so C is wrong.

6. Current Affairs

Q11. Recently 'Tiger wings' was in news. Consider the following statements regarding this.

• A. It is an innovative vertical garden.
• B. It was designed by Patrick Blanc.
• C. It uses the water efficiently.
• D. Recently it was launched in Kempe Gowda International Airport. Which of the above are correct?

1. All of them
2. Only three of them
3. Only two of them
4. Only one of them

Correct Answer: (1) All of them

Tiger Wings is a 30 ft by 160 ft vertical garden at Terminal 2 of Kempegowda International Airport, Bengaluru, unveiled in November 2024. It was designed with the French botanist Patrick Blanc, uses a soilless felt system with a carefully metered irrigation system that is highly water-efficient, and holds about 15,000 plants. All four statements are correct.

Q14. Consider the Padma Awards 2024 from Karnataka and relevant field. How many pairs are correctly matched?

Awardee	Field given	Correct?
A. Ms. Shashi Soni	Trade and Industry	Yes
B. Shri Somanna	Social work	Yes
C. Ms. Prema Dhanraj	Medicine	Yes
D. Shri Rohan Bopanna	Sports	Yes

1. Only one pair is correct
2. Only two pairs are correct
3. Only three pairs are correct
4. All of them are correct

Correct Answer: (4) All of them are correct

Shashi Soni (Trade and Industry), Somanna (Social Work, tribal welfare), Prema Dhanraj (Medicine, as a plastic surgeon and burn-survivor advocate) and Rohan Bopanna (Sports, tennis) were all Padma Shri awardees from Karnataka in 2024, so every pair is right.

Q57. Match list I with List II (Nobel Prizes 2024)

List I	List II
A. Physics	VII. Machine learning and artificial neural networks
B. Medicine	I. MicroRNA and Gene regulation
C. Peace	IV. World free of nuclear weapons
D. Chemistry	II. Computational protein design
E. Literature	III. Traumas and fragility of human life

1. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV, E-VI
2. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-V, E-IV
3. A-VII, B-I, C-IV, D-II, E-III
4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV, E-V

Correct Answer: (3) A-VII, B-I, C-IV, D-II, E-III

Hopfield and Hinton won Physics for work on artificial neural networks, Ambros and Ruvkun won Medicine for microRNA, Nihon Hidankyo won Peace for its work toward a nuclear-weapon-free world, David Baker shared Chemistry for computational protein design, and Han Kang won Literature for prose that confronts historical traumas and the fragility of human life. Synthesis of quantum dots and nucleoside base modifications were Chemistry 2023 and Medicine 2023, so they are distractors.

7. Mental Ability (Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude)

Q4. Six books P, Q, R, S, T and U are places side by side. R, Q and T have blue covers and other books have red covers. Only S and U are new books and rest are old. P, R and S are law reports and the rest are Gazetteers. Which books are old Gazetteers with blue covers?

1. Q and T
2. Q and R
3. Q and U
4. T and U

Correct Answer: (1) Q and T

Blue covers: Q, R, T. Old books: P, Q, R, T. Gazetteers: Q, T, U. The books that are blue, old and Gazetteers all at once are Q and T. R is blue and old but is a law report, and U is a Gazetteer but is new with a red cover.

Q5. Group the given figures into three classes using each figure only once (figures: 1 star; 2 triangle; 3 square with a circle inside; 4 triangle with a circle beside it; 5 square with a star inside; 6 star with a triangle; 7 square; 8 triangle with a square; 9 star with a circle inside).

1. 3, 4, 9; 5, 7, 8; 1, 2, 6
2. 1, 5, 6; 2, 4, 8; 3, 7, 9
3. 4, 6, 8; 3, 5, 7; 1, 2, 3
4. 1, 2, 7; 3, 5, 9; 4, 6, 8

Correct Answer: (4) 1, 2, 7; 3, 5, 9; 4, 6, 8

Figures 1, 2 and 7 each show a single plain shape. Figures 3, 5 and 9 each show one shape enclosed inside another. Figures 4, 6 and 8 each contain a triangle or star joined with another shape side by side. This gives three clean classes with all nine figures used once; option (3) repeats figure 3 and the other options mix the classes.

Q6. Find the missing number in the following (each block gives letters whose alphabet positions add up to the number: R-J = 28, T-X = 44, C-K = 14, S-O = ?).

1. 34
2. 19
3. 18
4. 15

Correct Answer: (1) 34

The number in each block equals the sum of the positions of its two letters: R(18)+J(10)=28, T(20)+X(24)=44, C(3)+K(11)=14. For the last block, S(19)+O(15)=34.

Q7. A wealthy merchant came to Tenali Rama:

• A. She wanted to distribute her property equally among her two daughters, Arya and Sita, and one son Sonu.
• B. She has Rs. 7000 in form of farm produce, 1 house worth Rs. 5000, 3 parcels of land of Rs. 3000 each and some gold coins of Rs. 100 each.
• C. A single unit of gold coin, single parcel of land and a house cannot be divided partially. Also, each child receives an equal number of gold coins.
• D. Arya receives least from farm produce while Sita receives the highest. How much did Sonu receive in farm produce?

1. Rs. 3000
2. Rs. 4000
3. Rs. 2000
4. Rs. 1000

Correct Answer: (3) Rs. 2000

Excluding the gold, which every child gets equally, the property is worth 7000 + 5000 + 9000 = Rs. 21,000, so each child's share is Rs. 7000. The child who gets the house needs Rs. 2000 more, which can only come from farm produce (a land parcel is too big). The other two children must share the three parcels and the remaining Rs. 5000 of farm produce: one takes two parcels (Rs. 6000) plus Rs. 1000 farm produce, the other takes one parcel (Rs. 3000) plus Rs. 4000. The farm produce amounts are therefore 1000, 2000 and 4000. Arya has the least and Sita the most, so Sonu, with the house and Rs. 2000, receives Rs. 2000 in farm produce.

Q8. How many parcels of land did Arya receive?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. Cannot be determined

Correct Answer: (2) 2

From Q7, the child with the least farm produce (Rs. 1000) is the one who takes two parcels of land (Rs. 6000) to make up Rs. 7000. Since Arya receives the least farm produce, Arya gets two parcels.

Q9. Rupesh introduces Poonam as the daughter of the only son of my father's wife. How is Poonam related to Rupesh?

1. Cousin
2. Niece
3. Daughter
4. Aunt

Correct Answer: (3) Daughter

Rupesh's father's wife is his mother. The only son of his mother is Rupesh himself. Poonam is that son's daughter, so she is Rupesh's daughter.

Q17. 8 points lie on the circumference of a circle. How many more quadrilaterals can be formed by connecting these points compared to number of triangles?

1. 14
2. 24
3. 16
4. 18

Correct Answer: (1) 14

Any 4 of the 8 points form a quadrilateral, giving 8C4 = 70. Any 3 points form a triangle, giving 8C3 = 56. The difference is 70 − 56 = 14.

Q18. A is x% more than B and is x% of sum of A and B. What is the value of x?

1. 50%
2. 62%
3. 75%
4. 37%

Correct Answer: (2) 62%

Let r = x/100. A = B(1 + r), and A = r(A + B). Substituting, B(1 + r) = r[B(1 + r) + B] = rB(2 + r), so 1 + r = 2r + r², i.e. r² + r − 1 = 0. The positive root is r = (√5 − 1)/2 ≈ 0.618, so x ≈ 62%. Substituting 50%, 75% or 37% does not satisfy both conditions.

Q43. How many zeros end the number 2^300 · 5^600 · 4^400?

1. 300
2. 400
3. 500
4. 600

Correct Answer: (4) 600

Since 4^400 = 2^800, the number equals 2^1100 · 5^600. Each trailing zero needs one factor of 2 and one factor of 5, and the limiting factor is the 600 fives. So there are 600 trailing zeros.

Q44. If x is a positive integer such that 2x + 91 is perfectly divisible by x, then the number of possible values of x is

1. 2
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6

Correct Answer: (2) 4

Because x divides 2x, for x to divide 2x + 91 it must divide 91. Since 91 = 7 × 13, its positive divisors are 1, 7, 13 and 91, which gives 4 possible values.

Q45. Diamond price is proportional to the square of its weight. This diamond broke into four pieces with weights in the ratio 1:2:3:4. Therefore the merchant got Rs. 70,000 less. The original price of the diamond is

1. 1.25 lakhs
2. 1.5 lakhs
3. 2 lakhs
4. 1 lakh

Correct Answer: (4) 1 lakh

The total weight is 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 = 10 parts, so the original price is k × 10² = 100k. The pieces are worth k(1² + 2² + 3² + 4²) = 30k. The loss is 70k = Rs. 70,000, so k = 1000 and the original price is 100 × 1000 = Rs. 1,00,000.

Q46. Each odd digit in the number 5263187 is added by 1 and each even digit is subtracted by 1. The digits obtained are arranged in ascending order. Which will be the third digit from the left of the new number?

1. 4
2. 2
3. 5
4. 6

Correct Answer: (1) 4

The digits 5, 2, 6, 3, 1, 8, 7 become 6, 1, 5, 4, 2, 7, 8. In ascending order they read 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, so the third digit from the left is 4.

Consider the following for questions 47 to 50: In a chess tournament 64 players ranked 1 to 64 participated. Following were the rules of this knock-out tournament: I. There were six rounds in the tournaments. II. In the first round, Match 1 was played between player Ranked 1 vs player Ranked 64. Match 2 was played between player Ranked 2 vs player Ranked 63 and so on. III. In the second round, Match 1 was played between the winner of the Match No. 1 of the first round vs the winner of the Match No. 32 of the first round. Similarly, Match 2 was played between the winner of the Match No. 2 of the first round vs the winner of the Match No. 31 of the first round. IV. Next all rounds were played with the above mentioned rules.

How the bracket works: in round 1, seed s plays seed 65 − s (match number = the smaller of s and 65 − s). In every later round, match k pairs the winner of match k with the winner of the last remaining match, so the bracket is the standard one. Seeds 43 and 46, for example, sit in round-1 matches 22 and 19; seed 14 is in match 14 and seed 55 in match 10.

Q47. Ranked 43 won the tournament, then which of the following players cannot be the runner-up?

• A. Player Ranked 44;
• B. Player Ranked 45;
• C. Player Ranked 46;
• D. Player Ranked 36.

1. A only
2. B and D
3. A and C
4. C only

Correct Answer: (4) C only

Seed 43 plays in round-1 match 22, then round-2 match 11, round-3 match 6 and round-4 match 3. Seed 46 plays round-1 match 19, round-2 match 14, round-3 match 3 and round-4 match 3. Both therefore have to meet in round 4 at the latest, so if 43 wins the tournament, 46 has been knocked out by then and cannot be the runner-up. Seeds 44, 45 and 36 are in round-1 matches 21, 20 and 29, which all lie in the opposite half of the draw, so any of them can reach the final. This overrides the coaching key, which shows (1).

Q48. Who could be the lowest Ranked player facing the player seeded 29 in the finals?

1. 57
2. 59
3. 62
4. 63

Correct Answer: (4) 63

Seed 29 lies in round-1 match 29, whose route runs through round-2 match 4, round-3 match 4 and round-4 match 4, which is the top half of the draw (that half also holds seed 64, in match 1). The finalist must come from the other half, whose round-1 matches are 2, 3, 6, 7, 10, 11, 14, 15, 18, 19, 22, 23, 26, 27, 30 and 31. The weakest-ranked player in these is seed 63 (match 2), who can reach the final through a run of upsets.

Q49. If one of the matches was between the players seeded 14 and 55, then one of the matches in the tournament can be between players seeded:

• A. 25 and 52;
• B. 43 and 47;
• C. 7 and 39;
• D. 2 and 6.

1. B and D
2. A and C
3. D and B
4. C only

Correct Answer: (2) A and C

Seed 14 follows round-2 match 14, round-3 match 3 and round-4 match 3; seed 55 follows round-2 match 10, round-3 match 7 and round-4 match 2. They can only meet in the semi-final that joins round-4 matches 2 and 3, which is the second semi-final. Seeds 43 and 47 would also have to meet in that same semi-final (round-4 matches 3 and 2), and so would seeds 2 and 6, so B and D are impossible once 14 plays 55 there. Seeds 25 and 52 would meet in the first semi-final (round-4 matches 1 and 4), and seeds 7 and 39 both enter round-2 match 7, so A and C are possible. This overrides the coaching key, which shows (1).

Q50. If there are only five such cases when a lower Ranked player beats a higher Ranked player in the tournament, then who could be the lowest Ranked player winning the tournament?

1. 32
2. 16
3. 17
4. 63

Correct Answer: (1) 32

A player must win six matches, and a win over a better-ranked opponent counts as an upset. Seed 32 meets seed 33 in round 1 (no upset), then must beat the best seeds of the opposing groups in later rounds (seeds 1, 16, 8, 4 and 2 in the best case), which is five upsets. Seed 33 and anyone below would need an upset in all six rounds, which breaks the limit of five, so 32 is the lowest possible winner.

Q51. Consider the following Statements: No cats are dogs. All dogs are animals. Some animals are not cats. Based on the above statements which is true:

1. Some cats are animals.
2. No dogs are cats.
3. All animals are dogs.
4. All dogs are cats.

Correct Answer: (2) No dogs are cats.

A universal negative can be reversed: if no cats are dogs, then no dogs are cats. Nothing in the statements says that cats are animals, that all animals are dogs, or that dogs are cats, so (1), (3) and (4) are not established.

Q52. Which of the following statements is logically equivalent to: "If it rains, I will take an umbrella"?

• A. If I take an umbrella, it will rain.
• B. If I do not take an umbrella, it will not rain.
• C. If it does not rain, I will not take an umbrella.
• D. If I do not take an umbrella, it will rain.

1. A and B
2. C only
3. B and C
4. D only

Correct Answer: (2) C only (the printed option set; see the flaw noted below)

Strictly, a conditional "if P then Q" is equivalent only to its contrapositive "if not Q then not P", which is statement B. Statement A is the converse, and statement C ("if it does not rain, I will not take an umbrella") is the inverse, which is not logically equivalent; statement D is unrelated. No option lists B alone, so this question is defective and open to challenge. The standard key marks (2) C only, which treats the rain-umbrella rule in everyday if-and-only-if terms. If the paper has to be answered as printed, (2) is the key choice, but a rigorous logician would answer B.

Direction for Q81–83: A, B, C, D, E, F and G are 7 friends sitting in a single row facing North. D is to the immediate right of C. E and A are neighbours of F. B is to the immediate left of C and on second place from left most end. A is at the right most end.

Seating from left to right: G, B, C, D, E, F, A. B is second from the left, so C is third and D fourth. A is at the right end, F is next to it, and E is F's other neighbour, which leaves G at the left end.

Q81. Who is in between C and E?

1. F
2. D
3. A
4. B

Correct Answer: (2) D

In the row G, B, C, D, E, F, A the only person between C (3rd) and E (5th) is D.

Q82. Who is the neighbour of G?

1. E
2. A
3. B
4. D

Correct Answer: (3) B

G is at the left end, so its only neighbour is B.

Q83. What is the position of E from left?

1. 3rd
2. 5th
3. 2nd
4. 4th

Correct Answer: (2) 5th

Counting G, B, C, D, E gives E as 5th from the left.

Q84. In a class of 45 students Aditya's rank is twelve from top. What is his rank from the bottom?

1. 33
2. 34
3. 35
4. cannot be determined

Correct Answer: (2) 34

Rank from the bottom = total − rank from top + 1 = 45 − 12 + 1 = 34.

Q85. If in a certain language, MADRAS is coded as NBESBT, how is BOMBAY coded in that language?

1. ANLAZX
2. CPNCBZ
3. CPOCBZ
4. DQODCA

Correct Answer: (2) CPNCBZ

Each letter of MADRAS is moved one place forward (M→N, A→B, D→E, R→S, A→B, S→T). Applying the same rule, B→C, O→P, M→N, B→C, A→B, Y→Z gives CPNCBZ.

Q86. Deepak said to Nitin, "That boy playing football is the younger of the two brothers of the daughter of my father's wife." How is the boy playing football related to Deepak?

1. Son
2. Brother
3. Cousin
4. Nephew

Correct Answer: (2) Brother

Deepak's father's wife is his mother, and her daughter is his sister. The two brothers of that sister are Deepak and the boy; the boy is the younger one, so he is Deepak's younger brother.

Q87. In a queue, the position of A from the front is 7th and the position of B from the front is 15th and 21st from the back. Now find the position of A from the back.

1. 30th
2. 28th
3. 29th
4. 31st

Correct Answer: (3) 29th

The queue length is 15 + 21 − 1 = 35. A's position from the back is 35 − 7 + 1 = 29th.

Q88. A person has a total of 1060 rupees in coins of five rupee, two rupee, one rupee and fifty paisa coins in the proportion 2:4:7:3. Find the number of two rupee coins.

1. 80
2. 280
3. 160
4. 120

Correct Answer: (3) 160

Take 2k, 4k, 7k and 3k coins. The value is 2k×5 + 4k×2 + 7k×1 + 3k×0.5 = 10k + 8k + 7k + 1.5k = 26.5k. Setting 26.5k = 1060 gives k = 40, so the number of two-rupee coins is 4k = 160.

Q89. Statements: (i) All doors are tables; (ii) No tables are chairs. Conclusions: I. No doors are chairs. II. No chairs are doors. III. Some tables are doors.

1. Only I and II
2. Only II and III
3. All three
4. None of these

Correct Answer: (3) All three

If all doors are tables and no tables are chairs, no door can be a chair, so I follows, and II is its simple reversal. Since all doors are tables (and doors exist), some tables are doors, so III follows too.

Q90. What is the greatest number of regions into which three straight lines (of infinite extent) can divide the plane?

1. 5
2. 6
3. 7
4. 8

Correct Answer: (3) 7

The maximum number of regions from n lines is n(n + 1)/2 + 1, reached when no two lines are parallel and no three meet at a point. For n = 3 this is 7.

Q91. There are more adults than boys, more boys than girls, more girls than families. If no family has fewer than 3 children, then what is the least number of families that there could be?

1. 4
2. 3
3. 2
4. 1

Correct Answer: (4) 1

One family is enough to satisfy every condition: for example 2 girls (more than 1 family), 3 boys (more than girls) and 4 adults (more than boys), with 5 children in the family, which is not fewer than 3. Since at least one family must exist, the least number is 1. This overrides the coaching key, which shows 3; that figure is not forced by any of the given conditions, so this item is open to challenge.

Q92. A ten foot pole is dropped into a milling saw and randomly cut into three shorter poles. What is the probability that these three pieces will form a triangle?

1. 1/2
2. 1/3
3. 2/3
4. 1/4

Correct Answer: (4) 1/4

Three pieces form a triangle only if every piece is shorter than half the pole (5 ft). With two cut points chosen uniformly at random on the pole, the favourable region is one quarter of the whole area of possible cut pairs, so the probability is 1/4. This overrides the coaching key, which shows 1/3.

Answer-Key Discrepancies and Items Resting on the Key

Q. No	Coaching key (Series P)	Verified answer	Reason
47	(1) A only	(4) C only	Seed 46 meets seed 43 by round 4; seed 44 can reach the final
49	(1) B and D	(2) A and C	B and D would need the same semi-final slot already used by 14 vs 55
74	(3) Only three	(2) Only two	Only HESCOM and CESCOM are distribution companies
91	(2) i.e. 3	(4) i.e. 1	One family satisfies all conditions
92	(2) i.e. 1/3	(4) i.e. 1/4	Standard broken-stick result
52	(2) C only	Question flawed	Only B is logically equivalent; no option is exactly right